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The India Pakistan geographical divide is at least 1600 years old

The Main point I am making is that the India, Pakistan divide in the sub-continent is not at all arbitrary, but falls right along the hardfought boundaries of various empires of the last 1600 years.

The India Pakistan geographical divide is at least 1600 years old

Let me try to understand what you are suggesting. Do you mean that India-Pak 'boundary' or divide is a geographical one? as in Physical Geography?

Or do you mean it is 'Political' one? As in those ones drawn between empires and communities?

Your title states the former while your 'main point' suggests it is later. Though I am more inclined to believe that you are suggesting it is a political one.
 
Let me try to understand what you are suggesting. Do you mean that India-Pak 'boundary' or divide is a geographical one? as in Physical Geography?

Or do you mean it is 'Political' one? As in those ones drawn between empires and communities?

Your title states the former while your 'main point' suggests it is later.


The South there formed a physical boundary post-Indus Valley with the formation of Thar desert and the Salt Flats of Kutch..In the North ,various Indic empires were only able to extend to the Jalandhar-Sialkot belt, before being checked in by nomadic empires or empires of recently settled nomads....This happened even during the reign of the most powerful Indic empire in History--The Guptas....This situation repeated around 4-5 times in the Post-Mauryan Pre-Islamic times

The border between India and Pakistan reflects this ancient pre-Islamic border
 
it is not arbitrary division. it is gradual sliding scale. The divisions are real. FYI there are no Australoids.

What would Pathans in KPK and Mohajhirs in urban Sind have in common beyond religion ?
We Pakistanis all share the same genetic cluster and have cultural similarities.

Pakistan%2BMDS.png
 
The South there formed a physical boundary post-Indus Valley with the formation of Thar desert and the Salt Flats of Kutch.
Point #1.

In the North ,various Indic empires were only able to extend to the Jalandhar-Sialkot belt, before being checked in by nomadic empires or empires of recently settled nomads....This happened even during the reign of the most powerful Indic empire in History--The Guptas....This situation repeated around 4-5 times in the Post-Mauryan Pre-Islamic times
Point #2.

The border between India and Pakistan reflects this ancient pre-Islamic border
So you mean the present India-Pakistan border is along the two lines.

The southern India - Pakistan border is defined by a physical divide / boundary along Thar and Salt Flats of Kutch which were formed after Indus Valley period (Point #1)

AND

The northern border is along the lines of multiple Post-Mauryan empires who never went beyond Sialkot and remained to the east of Indus river, checked by relatively recent settler in west of Indus who were nomadic folks. (Point #2)

By the way from your description it appears you are also taking the period of empires which is post Mauryan and Pre Islamic / Arabic Invasion for point #2. You are using this period and empires of that time to suggest the basis of modern day India - Pakistan border in the north. Is it correct?
 
The India Pakistan geographical divide has roots of at least 1600 years

I know I will take a lot of flak from fellow Indians over this issue,but history has to be adjudged on its own merit. I more or less agree with @Kaptaan 's reading of phenotypes,history,geography but donot appreciate his caustic overtones.

The Main point I am making is that the India, Pakistan divide in the sub-continent is not at all arbitrary, but falls right along the hardfought boundaries of various empires of the last 1600 years.

That's a huge time span which is longer than the time span of historical Islam, almost as long as Historical Christianity and 2/3rds of documented history of India ..(documented History of India begins with Bimbisara,Ajatashatru)

This border solidified itself even before the invasions of Ghazni and , dare I say, even before the Arab landings in Sindh. The genesis of this border predates the arrival of Islam

The divide between Indians and Pakistanis should not be seen as religious divide but rather as ethnic and even racial divide that made its distinction felt religiously.

The divide between India and Pakistan border is the divide between empires arising out of Indo-Gangetic Plain/Central India and Nomadic empires from the North-West OR empires created by recently settled nomads..

I) Historical Pakistan west of Indus can be likened to Pagan Vikings (Norse religion) also Afg
II)Historical Pakistan east of Indus can be likened to Norsemen/Normans of Normandy and Italy who converted to Christianity and later carried out the Crusades
III)Historical India east of Sutlej can be likened to Celtic Britain with a veneer of long-arrived Anglo-Saxon nobility ..(Dravidians with Aryan upper castes)


Even-though whole of North-India got a single pulse of Indo-European genes with the Aryan intrusion, North-West India has got multiple pulses of Indo-European genes in the pre-Islamic times...
starting with Persians,
continuing with Greeks,Scythians,Kushans,Yuezhis,Wusuns,
and ending with Alchon Huns,Kidarites,Hepthalites,Nezak Huns....

The ones in the North-West who chose to be inducted in the social order of Brahmanism became Hindus, the ones who wanted to maintain as much cultural heritage and link to Central Asia chose Buddhism,Zoroastrianism,Nomadic shamanism.

------Counterpoints by Indians that need to be refuted---

1)Now Indians at this point will hark back to Mauryan Empire and say most of India, All of Pakistan and subtantial part of Afghanistan were united during that
time , and all that has happened since then till the modern era doesnot matter.



Answer:Really? That was for 120 years out of 2,500 years of documented history of the subcontinent. I would like to point out that this sort of display of historical illiteracy means you are denying the legitimacy,glory,recognition and rightful place in history of other Indic empires,warriors and conquerors that followed in the ensuing 2300 years .

Warfare changed a lot from 300 BC to 400 AD in whole of Eurasia(the time of Alexander to the sack of Rome)

Warfare was more infantry based during earlier part of this period and as such you could see the rise of Alexander, Ceasar,Mauryan Empire,Roman Republic and Empire.....
During the later part of this period,nomadic warfare tactics,horseborne archery,cavalry were slowly being perfected till they reached perfection around the period of Hunnic
rise all over Eurasia (ca. 400 AD)..This was facilitated by the invention of iron stirrups around 300 AD.

It is this type of military tactics that prevailed supreme in Eurasia till the onset of gunpowder, and even then it held its own till the onset of mass volley fire between 15th and 18th century.....On may well argue that the period between 400 AD and 1800 AD is the period that in which bulk of the identity of various regions of the subcontinent
formed..Temple construction,the hallmark of Hinduism,didnot really take off before 100 AD..though there were Buddhist Stupas,Hindu cave shrines,Buddhist cave monasteries before.

In that sense we can reread Abdali's invasion of India. Abdali is considered descendant of the Hepthalites who invaded India around 455 AD and got repulsed. Abdali's invasion was not a mission to re-establish Islam's premier position in India but rather a replay of the
fights between Gupta empire and the Hunas . A repeat of the interplay of the same
geopolitical forces. Like the last time, Hunas/Abdalis checked the expansion of Indo-Aryans in the Northwest but they themselves failed to hold onto the gains made in Northern Central India. The Marathas conquered the NorthWest in 1758 which was reversed by Abdali/Durrani but Abdali/Durrani himself was forced to withdraw,reckoning that the maximum
defensible,logical territory for him would be everything west of Sutlej..remember this was the Afghan empire at its peak....The Marathas during their resurrection 10 years later, could show their dominance over all of North India but again failed to make inroads into the
NorthWest..These developments are not isolated ..Below are a list of India's greatest empires from post-Maurya and Pre-Islamic times..the only empires that managed to hold onto modern day Pakistan and parts of Northern India were the nomadic ones ...I give an account of all major Indic/Indo-Aryan empires and not the nomadic ones
Gupta Empire---------All of modern North India and a small protrusion till Sialkot (Chenab?),though they allied with Kushan Shahs of Pakistan against Sassanids and defeated the Sassanid-Hunnic alliance.
Harsha's empire------Much of modern Northern India and none of modern Pakistan
Gurjara Pratihara(Rajputs)-----------All of Modern North India and a small protrusion till Gujarat,Punjab Pakistan
Pala Empire----------Same as Gurjara Pratiharas when they won against them temporarily



Time and again one sees that even the most powerful of Indic empires can only stretch till Sialkot and no more, they come up against a hard-barrier to their expansion capabilities from pure nomadic tribes or from newly settled nomadic tribes in the area. One may even argue that the unseen geopolitical forces have so much influence, that the loss of Lahore,Sialkot,Gujarat Arc during Partition,led to the capture of Jammu (roughly corresponding to the said Arc) by the forces of the modern Indic empire--the Republic of India.


2) The Cultural Unit Argument. Some Indians will also say that political divisions donot matter,as whole of sub-continent constitutes a single coherent cultural unit.

Answer:I would say that statement is very vacuous and is on the same level as that of some Muslims from the sub-continent,whose forefathers converted post 11th century, claiming to be part of the same group of Arabs who conquered the Iberian peninsula in 8th century. Political-military power matters if you want to impose or project your cultural power and identity.

3) The Afghanistan being Hindu Argument.There are always claims that
Afghanistan used to be Hindu and that makes not only Afghanistan Indian but also the land between
Afghanistan and India,by the said logic, Indian
.


Answer:This is an illogical comment that beggars belief! The First rulers of the Shahi dynasties were Turkic in origin..They probably were descendants of the various Hunnic dynasties that were retreating from India ...Many times royal dynasties convert to the religion of the ruled in order to gain greater legitimacy and the Turks were never exclusively Hindus all over the world, they were during various times
Buddhists,Shamanists,Tengriists,Nestorian Christians,Muslims,Taoists etc.

Moreover eventhough these Hunnic people may have been ruling over a Hindu majority when they were briefly ruling over India, they certainly were ruling over a Buddhist majority when they were back in Afghanistan..This can be evident from the fact that the other famous Turkic Hindu dynasty in Afghanistan from the post-Gupta but pre-Islamic period, the Rutbils of Zabulistan, had hundreds of Buddhist monasteries compared to dozens of Hindu temples. One must remember that Buddhism historically was a much more cosmopolitan religion less tied to its roots in the subcontinent and less emphatic of its ties to Indic culture than Hinduism. Buddhism was much more of a trans-racial religion than Hinduism at any point in history.Hinduism has the same relationship to the land of India as Judaism has to the Land of Israel. Whereas Buddhism has same relationship to India as Christianity has to the Land of Israel. In other words, if India were to disappear from the globe tomorrow, it won't delegitimize Buddhism even though it would certainly reduce Buddhism's influence.


One more thing to note is that these Hindu Turks used to look towards the Chinese emperor for recognition of their suzerainity rather than to Indian rulers



However around 850 AD, the Shahi dynasty did come under a Brahmin ruler and the descendants of this Brahmin dynasty held on to Kabul till 871 AD,when they lost
it to the Arabs. Then they regained it in 879 AD and held on to it till 900 AD,when they lost it for good to the Saffarids (Turkic/Iranic?)..They did hold on to slices of NWFP and Pakistani Punjab till 1001 AD though..
so post Mauryas, proper Indic Hindus held on to Kabul for a grand total of 42 years in two
streaks .It is reckoned that the Hindu Brahmins who ruled Kabul for 42 years were Mohyal Brahmins


Even during the Arab invasions the Hindu Kashmiri kings would rather appeal to the Tang Chinese than the Gurjara Pratiharas for alliance.This is a very peculiar situation that needs much study.though it must be said that the Tangs were defeated in the Battle of Talas and permanently lost the control of Central Asia, while the Gurjara Pratiharas limited the Arab expansion to Sindh only.



This ends the refutation of the most common arguments denying ancient Indo-Pak distinction
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Some comments regarding race and appearance in the South Asian Historical context:


Eventhough it might not be palpable, race and skin-tone has always played a major component in forming the identity of various peoples of the subcontinent since Ancient times.

The Brahmins of the Far-North West were disbelieving when Brahmin students from Bihar used to visit Taxila and were of the opinion that some of these Brahmins were so dark-skinned that they couldnot possibly be true Brahmins. (Patanjali 2.2.6---ca 120 BC)

The Brahmin debating with the Buddha in the Sonadanda Sutta claimed that one of the hallmarks of being a Brahmin was fair complexion.

Even the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, which stems from around 8th century BC Bihar, equates lighter tones of skin colour to knowledge of various Vedas and advise various rituals in order to obtain children of various levels of merit and skin-colour

"
14) If a man wishes that a son with a fair complexion should be born to him, that he should study one Veda and that he should attain a full term of life, then they (husband and wife) should have rice cooked in milk and eat it with clarified butter. Thus they should be able to beget such a son.


15) If a man wishes that a son with a tawny or brown complexion should be born to him, that he should study two Vedas and that he should attain a full term of life, then they should have rice cooked in curds and eat it with clarified butter. Thus they should be able to beget such a son.


16) If a man wishes that a son with a dark complexion and red eyes should be born to him, that he should study three Vedas and that he should attain a full term of life, then they should have rice cooked in water and eat it with clarified butter. Thus they should be able to beget such a son."
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Some comments regarding race and appearance in the South Asian Modern context:

Sikhism is nothing but a non-muslim identity of the settled nomads of the Punjab region who didnot want to be identified with Brahmanism.Most of the modern Sikhs have paternal lineage from Central Asian nomads like Scythians or have roots in upper Indo-Aryan castes like Khatri. The point is phenotype matters people! This is the reason why Sikhism,dominated by Jatts and Khatris (relatively lighter and sharper) ,was not too keen on gaining tens of millions of Dalits from Maharashtra as converts under the leadership of Ambedkar..Ambedkar then finally chose Buddhism, though the intellectual
superiority of Buddhism (in his own estimation) appealed to Ambedkar for decades prior to that.

In the same vein Protestantism in the beginning was a revolt of the much fairer Northern Europeans to the hegemony of Southern Europeans.
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Closing Thoughts:

Bottomline the present political situation of the Indian subcontinent dates back to the collapse of Mughal empire and the rise of Maratha and Durrani empire

India------------------Direct descendant of the Maratha Empire, with some gains of Sikh Empire and Ahom Kingdom tagged on to it
Pakistan---------------Direct descendant of the Durrani Empire with some gains of the Sikh Empire reversed. or it may be argued that it is the rump state of the Gurkani empire
Bangladesh-------------Direct descendant of the Nawabs of Bengal ...They are the inheritors of the heritage of Ali Vardi Khan

Nepal------------------------Direct descendant of the Gorkha Kingdom
Afghanistan-----------------Another direct descendant of the Durrani Empire

Nepal is to India what Afghanistan is to Pakistan

Both Nepal's and Afghanistan's pride and identity lie in the fact that they were not subjugated by the Europeans like their more populous neighbours.
But both were full of high altitude terrain which was totally alien to the Europeans.
In a sense the British occupation of India was nothing but a postponement of the natural realignment of the borders of the various empires which were jostling for pre-eminence in the 18th century. The violence of partition was tragic but in the end rather inevitable.The violence was just the pent-up energy of long overdue geopolitical correction.

At least seven major political entities will always be present in the subcontinent
At the moment they are

India
Pakistan
Nepal
Bhutan
Bangladesh
Sri Lanka
Maldives

If in some alternate Universe/timeline some parts of Pakistan and India were to merge then you would see many other parts break off too due to too large racial and cultural disparities

--------------------------------------That's All Folks----------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------The End------------------------------------------------

PS: I cannot post my extensive sources due to me being a novice here..But would direct people to necessary academic sources if asked
I wish you knew the difference between a geographical boundary and a political boundary.
 
Point #1.


Point #2.


So you mean the present India-Pakistan border is along the two lines.

The southern India - Pakistan border is defined by a physical divide / boundary along Thar and Salt Flats of Kutch which were formed after Indus Valley period (Point #1)

AND

The northern border is along the lines of multiple Post-Mauryan empires who never went beyond Sialkot and remained to the east of Indus river, checked by relatively recent settler in west of Indus who were nomadic folks. (Point #2)

you have summarized it well but some major holes
They never went beyond Chenab...Big Difference compared to Indus....and the Post Mauryan Empires only extended as a small triangular incision beyond Jalandhar/Sutlej. This small triangular incision would include prsent day Lahore,Sialkot and in some cases Gujarat,Punjab. So post-Mauryan empires held to maxx 2-3% of Pakistani territory even in best of times


West of Indus------------------------Always Nomadic Folks or more correctly Horse-breeders
East of Indus but west of Sutlej-------waves of Nomadic Folks who would take up Agriculture
East of Sutlej------------------------Proper Indo-Aryan territory where Brahmanism held sway


Yes the history of the subcontinent after the Mauryas and before the invasions of the Islamic Turkic invaders give us enough hint, that the Indus Valley region was devolving to form its own geopolitical identity even without the added factor of Islam. (I am talking of a period of roughly 1200 years when the Indus Valley region seperated itself from rest of the subcontinent)

The fierce wars between the Durranis and Marathas in the 18th century in the wake of the Gurkani collapse was nothing but a reversion to this pre-Islamic delineation between Indus and rest of the subcontinent


The Marathas were driven away from Peshawar and rest of the Indus Area, but later in turn the Durranis had to retreat west of Sutlej.
 
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The ones in the North-West who chose to be inducted in the social order of Brahmanism became Hindus, the ones who wanted to maintain as much cultural heritage and link to Central Asia chose Buddhism,Zoroastrianism,Nomadic shamanism.

There was no religion called Hinduism before the advent of Sankaracharya.

There was no religion called Brahmanism.

All Indo-Iranians worshiped Vedic gods like Indra, Agni, Varuna, Maruts, Mitra, Ashvins, Surya, Prithvi, Vinshnu, Rudra etc. at least from 1700 BCE or earlier . Note that Vedic gods were invoked in the the treaties between Hittites and Mittani indicating that the Vedic kingdoms' geographical boundaries extended all the way to current day Turkey, Syria and Iraq.

Last stages of Rig Veda led to prominence of Vaishnavism and Shaivism in the Indian subcontinent while Zoroastrianism picked up on the Iranian side around 1000 BCE.

Even though Buddha lived around 500 BCE, Buddhism as religion was not popularized and patronized until the Kalinga war around 250 BCE. Emperor Ashoka was solely responsible for the propagation of Buddhism both in the subcontinent as well as in Central Asia and South East Asia while Sankaracharya united Vaishnavism, Shaivism, Buddhism, Jainism in Indian subcontinent to confront Islam around 800 CE.
 
Brahmanism is any religious rite that reveres the Four Vedas. Indic rites that totally deny any authority to the Vedas are Naastika rites, chief among them being Buddhism,Jainism,Ajivika,Charvaka/Lokayata..The last can be likened to modern scientific materialism
 
In that sense we can reread Abdali's invasion of India. Abdali is considered descendant of the Hepthalites who invaded India around 455 AD and got repulsed. Abdali's invasion was not a mission to re-establish Islam's premier position in India but rather a replay of the
fights between Gupta empire and the Hunas . A repeat of the interplay of the same
geopolitical forces. Like the last time, Hunas/Abdalis checked the expansion of Indo-Aryans in the Northwest but they themselves failed to hold onto the gains made in Northern Central India.
Its speculated that Abdalis might have some thing to do with Hepthalites/Ephthalites just because the names sound somewhat similar. But its not established that Abdalis are descendants of Hepthalites. The proved descendants of Hepthalites in Afghanistan were Khalj Turks who were allied with Afghans/Pashtuns (Note: Khalj Turks had nothing to do with Ghilzai Afghans). Abdalis on the other hand are lineage-wise purest Afghans and not assimilated ones. So Abdali invasion of India was not a replay of fights between Gupta empire and "Hunas" (note Hepthalites i.e White Huns were not your typical Huns but were Caucasoid Iranic people). Ahmad Shah Abdali's invasions of India were merely part of his master Nadir Shah's legacy. Ahmad Shah Abdali claimed Punjab and Sindh as successor of Nadir Shah.


India------------------Direct descendant of the Maratha Empire, with some gains of Sikh Empire and Ahom Kingdom tagged on to it
Pakistan---------------Direct descendant of the Durrani Empire with some gains of the Sikh Empire reversed. or it may be argued that it is the rump state of the Gurkani empire
Bangladesh-------------Direct descendant of the Nawabs of Bengal ...They are the inheritors of the heritage of Ali Vardi Khan

Nepal------------------------Direct descendant of the Gorkha Kingdom
Afghanistan-----------------Another direct descendant of the Durrani Empire

Nope, Pakistan is not successor of Durrani empire. Durrani empire was "Kandahar Shahi" government during the reign of Ahmad Shah Abdali and then it was "Kabul Shahi" government during the reign of all other Saddozai and Barakzai kings. Sure modern Pakistan was part of Durani empire but keep in mind that big chunks of Iran (Khorasan , Seistan and Kirman) were also parts of Durrani empire , so was Tajikistan. Neither Pakistan nor Iran is successor of Durrani empire. Pakistan is successor of Sikh empire of Ranjeet Singh as their seat was Lahore of present-day Pakistan and their government was "Lahore Shahi"
 
Brahmanism is any religious rite that reveres the Four Vedas. Indic rites that totally deny any authority to the Vedas are Naastika rites, chief among them being Buddhism,Jainism,Ajivika,Charvaka/Lokayata..The last can be likened to modern scientific materialism

True but philosophically Buddhism & Jainism are very close to Upanishads (decedents of Vedas) though atheistic in thought. Also, Buddhism was simplified like doing away with varnas or rituals to suit the propagation across various lands which did not have the same history of Indo-Iranians.
 
Lol. A big lol. I couldnt even comprehend what this try to tell. Probably false flags and Pakistanis are jumping "Indians" have accepted.

Accepted what?

You have moved on the basis of religion, while teaching lies to ur kids in Pakistan reg ur history. We do not know who lived in IVC. What language they spoke. What we ever know was Pak- Af region had Hindu- Buddhist population which was converted (forced as well as by own will). So what we had is perhaps common ancestors. And that "we" may include NW India with Pak-AF region on the basis of race etc.

So what holds the rest of India together which you guys refuse to acknowledge? The whole region was called Bharat/Bharata under King Bharat. That's one story. He may or may not have lived. But that's how "we" used to call ourselves. From North to South even though divided to different kingdoms.
Now some people after changing religions, and after few centuries. I am different cos I follow Islam. That's one of the stupidiest arguement one can make.

And I thank Jinnah for creating Pakistan.
 
Its speculated that Abdalis might have some thing to do with Hepthalites/Ephthalites just because the names sound somewhat similar. But its not established that Abdalis are descendants of Hepthalites. The proved descendants of Hepthalites in Afghanistan were Khalj Turks who were allied with Afghans/Pashtuns (Note: Khalj Turks had nothing to do with Ghilzai Afghans). Abdalis on the other hand are lineage-wise purest Afghans and not assimilated ones. So Abdali invasion of India was not a replay of fights between Gupta empire and "Hunas" (note Hepthalites i.e White Huns were not your typical Huns but were Caucasoid Iranic people). Ahmad Shah Abdali's invasions of India were merely part of his master Nadir Shah's legacy. Ahmad Shah Abdali claimed Punjab and Sindh as successor of Nadir Shah.




Nope, Pakistan is not successor of Durrani empire. Durrani empire was "Kandahar Shahi" government during the reign of Ahmad Shah Abdali and then it was "Kabul Shahi" government during the reign of all other Saddozai and Barakzai kings. Sure modern Pakistan was part of Durani empire but keep in mind that big chunks of Iran (Khorasan , Seistan and Kirman) were also parts of Durrani empire , so was Tajikistan. Neither Pakistan nor Iran is successor of Durrani empire. Pakistan is successor of Sikh empire of Ranjeet Singh as their seat was Lahore of present-day Pakistan and their government was "Lahore Shahi"


Is there anyway to characterize Pakistan as the major remnant state of the Mughals/Gurkanis? Is not the Republic of India as deserving of the legacy of the Sikh Empire as Pakistan? Thank you for a fresh perspective

Yes the Hunas that invaded the subcontinent were different in look compared to the ones who attacked the West..Indians call them Shveta Hunas because of their whte skin and Byzantine historians noted that they were quite good looking with white bodies...


I am hazarding a guess that though the White Hun confederates were fair skinned caucasoids, they spoke a proto-Turkic language? I mean all of them sported Tamga sigils and Tamga flags


@Rajaraja Chola King Bharata is enitrely mythical. Please give examples of Akhand Bharat under Indic Kings in the historical era....(except the single example of the Mauryas already mentioned countless times in this thread)
 
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but pre-Islamic period, the Rutbils of Zabulistan, had hundreds of Buddhist monasteries compared to dozens of Hindu temples. One must remember that Buddhism historically was a much more cosmopolitan religion less tied to its roots in the subcontinent and less emphatic of its ties to Indic culture than Hinduism. Buddhism was much more of a trans-racial religion than Hinduism at any point in history.Hinduism has the same relationship to the land of India as Judaism has to the Land of Israel. Whereas Buddhism has same relationship to India as Christianity has to the Land of Israel. In other words, if India were to disappear from the globe tomorrow, it won't delegitimize Buddhism even though it would certainly reduce Buddhism's influence.

It is not so simple. How do explain the Buddhist temples in the subcontinent like ellora and Hindus temples in south east asia like angkor wat?

You also need to consider that vedic idols have been found in Russia's Volga region, invoking of Vedic gods in treaties of kings and horse training manuals in Mesopotamian region and closeness of Sanskrit & Russian/Slavic languages.

http://vedic.su/Vedic/tur/IndiaRussia_Rishi_OCR.pdf
 
Buddhism spread everyhere independent of Indo-Aryan expansion..though there were some exapansion of Hindus from Southern India to South East Asia. e.g. Satavahanas


The Mitanni treaty were Indo-Aryans who migrated to modern Iraq from Afghanistan

the Indo-Iranian split (pre 2000 BC) happened way before the composition of the Vedas..The Asuras of Vedas are venerated in Zoroastrianism...there was an inversion of the Vedic religion in the Iranian branch



You have to show me that there is a consensus of among Historians that the Vedic religion as defined by the Vedas, was followed in Russia. A single Indian linguist doesnot pass the muster..where is the corresponding wikipedia article..



And a distinction should be made between the wider Indo-European trunk and the very distinct Indo-Aryan branch and the corresponding Vedic religion..Vedic religion was formed post 1500 BC ....The Rig Veda was composed in modern-day Punjab and NWFP region .----they may have had some sort of link to the BMAC complex though...But then again that's not Russia
 

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