I think you are agreeing with the Indian point of view rather than disagreeing. Just like Urdu was born in UP but is adopted by Pakistan, IVC which was mostly in Pakistan (but also had significant parts in India) is adopted by India.
I agree with one Indian point of view that some Indians do descend from the IVC but not all of them. Those who descend from the IVC can claim it, but not all of them.
When did I said our discussion is over??
You are cooking up stories now.
I am not cooking up stories, I just accidentally confused you with another member.
yes, I meant Pashuati seal and that was a typo..
I posted the findings of major archeologists and I am sure they will be worth crap for Pakistani.. A reality is a tough nut to crack, after all..
Huh? What are you talking about? Based on reality, the IVC was geographically mostly in what is now Pakistan. Only a small portion of the IVC was present in India.
Again I will pose this question -
Show us one Historian/Archeologists worth his salt who would have called IVC as Pakistani. On the other hand, there are plenty who rightfully associate it with India.
Another point, since the Pakistani of the day, were Hindus back then, so they can claim their association with our history but since you decided to move away that weakened your case.. There is no connect of the practices of Indus valley civilization people and Pakistani converted muslims where as real people of the land follow more or less same practices..
As I said earlier, the reason most people associate the IVC with India is because the word "India" historically referred to the entire region of the Sub-Continent & not to a specific country.
We don't want to claim anything of your history. You can keep your history to yourself. Since many Pakistanis will logically descend from the people of the IVC, it seems logical to assume that they do have a connection with the IVC regardless of their religion.
Punjabis are not from Uttar Pradesh so that you will correlate them with American English.
Now, what are you talking about again? I did not correlate them with American English.
Mughals had Persian as court language and Urdu was born with mingling of this court language with the mother tongue of people of Uttar Pradesh. With Mughal interaction you had your own Punjabi Language in Shahmukhi Script, so North Indians don't have claim on Punjabi in Shahmukhi script and Pakistanis don't have claim over Urdu language although both areas were ruled by Mughals.
English was born in Britain, but it's spoken in the USA, Australia, & Canada. Not all the people in those parts of the world are of English descent. Yet they do have the right to claim it as their own, seeing as they do speak it as their mother tongue. Similarly, Pakistanis can claim Urdu, & we claim the ancestral language of our Indo-Aryan ancestors "Sanskrit" as well. Indians do have a claim over Urdu as well, & to some extent over Sanskrit too.
However those who descend from the Vedic Aryans have greater claim to Sanskrit than those who speak it because of religion & culture. A good example is the Arabic language, it is the religious language of Islam, thus, I can claim it as my religious language. However, I can not associate Arabic with myself completely because I am certainly not its original speaker.