What's new

How China and India had always the biggest Economies for centuries

Churchill is your daddy and you know it.

Your pride just don't want to admit facts.
America is your second daddy and they saved you from your first daddy that is Japnese when they were spanking you uncivilised Hans and you know it.

Your pride just dont want to admit facts.
 
'"
India was created in 1947 if you bother to read history you would have know that & "single culture" you gotta be kidding me. You're an Indian you should already know. What exist then were "Indian civilizations". I don't remember them ever pooling their economic resouces together as a one united country. Do you?



China have a centralized government, 1 united language & an army of Bureaucrats to manage it. It's a nation before the white men start coining the term.

Ok .Are you satisfied ?
Under Mauryan (especially under Ashoka) and Guptas India was a united country before central asian barbarians attacked us.
They ruled from Kashmir to Kanyakumari.But due to foreign Invasion India loss some of its parts in 1947.Successive foreign invasion inject so much diversity in to Indian society.But thanks to same point you mentioned "Indian Civilizations " we are still in one piece even if loss some parts in 1947.
 
India needed a white foreigner that called them "beastly people" to unite them under a central regime.

Winston Churchill is India's founding daddy and every Indian knows this.

I'm out for now.

Peace.
 
America is your second daddy and they saved you from your first daddy that is Japnese when they were spanking you uncivilised Hans and you know it.

Your pride just dont want to admit facts.

Shit. Chinese civilized rude Japanese.
 
China had more big dynasties than india because of more frequent success in unification,but its not that india didn't have any.Han came after a gap.There were foreign dynasties in between-yuan,qing.Did china vanish then?That's what huewi is trying to say,that because in the middle others came in...india ceased to exist.Modern germany came into being in 1871.But were people of the region not called germans long before that.Similarly were the people of the subcontinent not called indians or hindus(hindu from indus from which india is derived)?U can find all peoples described as indians even in ancient greek,roman texts as well as muslim chronicles.
Check ashwamedha yajna and the concept of chakravarti smarat.It is our 'mandate of heaven'.

Because Germany is like India. Its started out as Geographical expression to denote the people living east of the Rhine, but they were never united not even under the HRE & Germany united under Prussia (Foreign Dynasties also, but became German in the end just like the Chinese one) Funny thing you just said. The Yuan were quickly overthrown after Mongol weakens & the Qing also got overthrown.

Don't get semantic just use facts.
 
Yes it was united in 221BC but there is always separatist movements through out history. Ukraine is one right now. That don't mean Ukraine is not a centralised state.

India never had a centralised state. Even now its barely centralised.

If USSR, US and Britain hadn't gifted you modern China, 1/4 of China would have been the part of japan and other half as independent countries. :laugh:
 
Only in your hindutva brain, not in real world. Not only this study seem bogus but also comparing whole subcontinent to other countries individually.

Yes we are Hindus .So what you want ?We praise and follow our own culture not some central asian Muslim barbarians.
Dont vomit your madrassa education here.we dont need that class .
 
Well, you gave us a foreign name, so China is what most foreigners used to call us, but we never called ourselves China, our true name is ZhongGuo, just like Rossiya is the true name for Russia.
Isn't the story similar to that of India's.....
India is also a foreign name, the actual name of our country is Bharat(named after king Bharat).....
So the bottomline is, the logic which the Chinese are using to disprove India's existence before 1947 can also be used to disprove China's existence before 1949.....:D
 
KMT rule had nothing to do with whether China had a central regime or not. It was about the people that were ruling China. They gave away Chinese lands.

Thus there was no united China before 1949. :laughcry:
 
India needed a white foreigner that called them "beastly people" to unite them under a central regime..

China needed a foreign country to unite it under a central regime but you ungrateful Hans still disrespect your master.
Winston Churchill is India's founding daddy and every Indian knows this.

.

Ameica and Japan are the two daddies of China and every ungrateful han Chinese know that they civilised you and you know it
 
India under foreign rule such as Mughal doesn't count as Indian economy.

Also I don't understand what former USSR territories means, since when is that country?

The author also used Turkey in the 1000. We didn't call ourselves Turkey back then.

Etc, etc. I didn't even read it.

Muslim only ruled .But Indians here work for them so work for country.
 
It could be true if India did not spend most of its history as a princely states. India in its history were only united twice. 4 if you count the Mughals & the British. While the Chinese were always has been United. This is why I do not understand the need to compare Apple(India) with Orange(China). You guys are just that different.
This is not true. Unlike the Qin Kingdom The Pratihara Dynasty and the Rashtrakuta Dynasty also ruled the major part of modern India and both Dynasties used the same title as the Gupta Emperors. Which means that both Dynasties saw themselves as successors of the Gupta Empire and Harsha Empire.
 
Back
Top Bottom