So what, not being industrialised because of a confluence of factors means it is 5% more acceptable that they are occupied? A lot of these countries are victims of colonialism, endemic local corruption, artificial state building by the colonial powers etc. In my view, it is essentially pure chance that the West became industrialised and fuelled the Great Divergence via their leveraging that advantage using colonialism. Every empire has its day. 1000 years ago Europe was the backwater of the world and Persia / Muslims dominated culture, arts, literature and economics. Today it is reversed. In another 1000 years time who knows.