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al-Hasani
I couldn't modify the post on that thread to respond to your modifications because that thread got closed, but this is a compiled version of the response with all the points covered. Some of the information has been repeated, & the links for Eupedia should be helpful as well. Hopefully, all of this will answer your queries, & I will make a post on the proto-Afroasiatic people later on whenever I get the time.
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p(-)0ENiX
That is possible about the IVC.
But that haplogroup predate any language group, ethnic group and people by a far. Nor did that haplogroup even originate on the Central Asian steppes etc. The percentage of haplogroup R is not minimal in the Arab world (Middle East). In fact it is the second most widespread haplogroup. J is the most widespread though while North Africa appears to be a blend between J, R and E. Most of Italy and Greece are not majority haplogroup R and even if they are that is not due to any invasion from Central Asia. They came there long ago since most theories point to the haplogroup R originating in the Middle East more presiely Anatolia so it is native. Aside from that then a Y-Chromosone is a small, small part of your overall DNA. That is why all Middle Eastern people closer more with each other despite differences in language, culture, religion than they do with South Asians, North Asians, South East Asians and Far East Asians. The people of the Middle East, at least the Arab world, also cluster much more with Southern Europeans (overall) and Europeans (minus Eastern Europeans who there seems to be very little affinity with) than we do with other Asians.
Well, research indicates that PIE tribes spread to different regions speaking dialects of the PIE language that eventually evolved in to different Indo-European languages. Of course cultural dominance & conquests played a role in this process as well. I never said haplogroup R1a originated in the Central Asian steppes, but proto-Indo-European tribes migrated towards both Central Asia & Europe. R1a originated in a region around the Black Sea, that much is certain, but the exact location could vary from northern Anatolia & even of course the Pontic Caspian steppes nearby. Greece, Italy or Europe in general never faced any invasion from Central Asia back then, & I think this is the point that confuses many people regarding this subject. The Mycenaeans & other proto-Greek speaking PIE tribes arrived from the region around the Black Sea which is considered to be the proto-Indo-European homeland. This homeland is where R1a originated. The PIE tribes that migrated to Central Asia (Andronovo) are the Indo-Iranians & they too began their migrations from the Pontic Caspian steppes. Greece & Italy naturally had an indigenous population already residing there before PIE migrations but cultural dominance & conquests led to the adoption of their languages, customs, Gods, etc.
The Latins (original people of Rome) tribe is another example:
Latins (Italic tribe) - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The Latins belonged to a group of Indo-European ("IE") tribes, conventionally known as the Italic tribes, that populated central and southern Italy during the Italian Iron Age (from about 900 BC onwards). The most common hypothesis is that the Italic peoples migrated into the Italian peninsula some time during the Italian Bronze Age (1800–900 BC).[2] The most likely migration route was from the Balkan peninsula along the Adriatic coast.[3]
Eventually, these tribes did assimilate with other indigenous populations, that's why the frequency of R1a varies. Western Europeans speak Indo-European languages but R1a is rare on that side of Europe. The reason for that is said to be some sort of conquests that resulted in the change of their languages & culture due to Indo-European elites. There are examples hinting towards that, for instance pottery style in Britannic & Gaelic geographic areas started to conform to the inferior styles of the Pontic-Caspian steppes. The Middle East is just a geographic location, & different people have roamed it for centuries, for reasons ranging from conquests to something as simple as trade. I think the term "minimal" was the wrong word to describe the presence of R1a in the Arab world, but the point being made was that some people belonging to the R1a haplogroups were absorbed in to Semitic communities & cultures in the past. As far as I know, R1a's major presence in the Arab world is more towards the eastern portions of Arabia & the Levant apart from some others. That in itself shows the affects of PIE migrations as well as their interaction with other communities.
In Southern Europe, Greece for instance; has a heavy presence of the haplogroup J2, in fact I think it's the dominant paternal lineage over there, & is present in parts of Asia minor too. This haplogroup is also present in Semitic populations due to assimilation. That is the major similarity between some people in Southern Europe & the Middle East. Despite the presence of J2 in Greece, the original Greek speakers that gave them their language, culture, & of course religion are proto-Indo-European Greek speakers belonging to the R1a haplogroup. It's their elite dominance that resulted in Hellenic civilization, which includes various aspects of their society such as their deities like Zeus (the Sky father), the war chariot, etc.
The haplogroup R1a is still present in Greece & Italy, & it should be noted that the dominance of ancient Rome lead to a lot of migrations & movement within their conquered territories too. The proto-Greek language is also the sister language of proto-Indo-Iranian. The map of the Kurgan hypothesis should explain multiple routes the PIE tribes took & Eupedia is an excellent place to get started on this subject. The dominant paternal lineages in Europe are R1a & R1b, & the only people related to them in the Middle East are those that carry the same markers or those with mixture from the maternal side. Other than that, ancient Semitic people & Indo-European speaking tribes (R1a & R1b) have different paternal lineages, bloodlines, languages, cultures, but are together part of the Caucasian race. Cultural similarities that exist occur due to contact, cultural transfusion, geographic location, & the availability of resources but the cultural aspect of society is under constant evolution. Technology itself has shown to have an impact on societal cultures & languages themselves continue to evolve over time too.
Haplogroup R1a (Y-DNA) - Eupedia
I advise readers to visit the link above & read up on the Greek, Germanic, & Indo-Iranian branches of R1a & the Kurgan hypothesis in general to better understand this subject. It should also clarify any misconceptions regarding the presence of R1a in Greece, & even ancient Germany. R1a1a was present in Germany during the period of the Coded ware culture.
But that haplogroup predate any current language, especially the Indo-European language branch and any ethnic groups alive today outside of Africa and few isolated people such as Aboriginals, Pacific Islanders, Papuans etc.
Nor did that haplogroup even originate on the Central Asian steppe etc. from where the Aryan invasions occurred into mainly Northwestern India, Pakistan and parts of Iran.
The percentage of haplogroup R is not minimal in the Arab world (Middle East). In fact it is the second most widespread haplogroup. J is the most widespread though while North Africa appears to be a blend between J, R and E. Most of Italy and Greece are not majority haplogroup R and even if they were that would not be due to any invasion from Central Asia. They came there long ago since most theories point to the haplogroup R originating in the Middle East more presiely Anatolia. Which is just next to Greece.
Aside from that then a Y-Chromosone is a small, small part of your overall DNA. That is why all Middle Eastern people cluster more with each other despite differences in language, culture, religion than they do with South Asians, North Asians, South East Asians and Far East Asians. Pakistanis, Afghans (especially) and some Northern Indians seem to have a big affinity with the peoples of the Middle East. Afghanistan for instance seem to be blend between ME, SA and CA.
The people of the Middle East, at least the Arab world, also cluster much more with Southern Europeans (overall) and Europeans (minus Eastern Europeans who there seems to be very little affinity with) than we do with other Asians. The vast majority of South Asians appear to have indigenous roots as indigenous as they can obviously be. Overall that is if we look at the DNA tests conducted and look what people cluster with.
The Proto-Indo-European language originated among R1a speakers, similar to how people belonging to the haplogroup J1 did not always speak Semitic languages either despite the fact that Semitic languages are associated with subclades of the haplogroup J1. However, the proto-Semitic language is most likely to have originated among people belonging to the haplogroup J1. Alright, I understand the confusion, the word Aryan is generally misused by many people. This word was used by Indo-Iranians to refer to themselves, it's no different that the word Hellene, which Greeks used to refer to themselves. However the proto-Indo-Iranians (Aryans) are cousins to other proto-Indo-European tribes which include the proto-Greeks, Latins, etc. The Indo-Iranians migrated from the Black Sea region towards Central Asia before migrating towards the Indus, Afghanistan, etc.
They belonged to the R1a haplogroup & I never stated that R1a originated in Central Asia. It originated near the Pontic Caspian steppes around the Black Sea & it's from there where the Indo-Iranian tribes originated as well before moving on to Central Asia. Yes, the proto-Greek speakers migrated from the PIE homeland around the Black Sea to mainland Greece. Getting back to the word Aryan, the only reason it was used by Europeans in recent times is because Sanskrit; the oldest Indo-European language contained it as a reference to Indo-Iranian tribes. Thus, they ended adopting the term temporarily for all European speakers of Indo-European languages. However, the ancient Greeks & Latins for instance never called themselves Aryans.
Below is the map of the Kurgan hypothesis:
This is a very simplified map, but you can see that the pink colored region is the proto-Indo-European homeland around the Black Sea, that's where the haplogroup R1a originated. There are migrations everywhere as represented in that map including ones to Greece & Italy. The arrow moving towards Central Asia represents proto-Indo-Iranian tribes. The proto-Indo-Iranians who called themselves Aryans later migrated down towards the Indus, Afghanistan, etc.
The links below from Eupedia are excellent for getting started on this subject, & they agree with my post as well.
Haplogroup R1a (Y-DNA) - Eupedia
Haplogroup R1b (Y-DNA) - Eupedia
There are various other sources that I have referred to pertaining to this subject as well to gather up to date information, nevertheless, those links are a great starting point. Human DNA is without a doubt extremely complex, but the importance of the Y-DNA haplogroup is to indicate paternal origins & that is naturally used when clustering different populations or studying them. Pakistan & Afghanistan do have similarities with parts of the Middle East, but a lot of those similarities result from a shared religion. However, cultural & linguistic similarities on their own aren't enough because these 2 aspects of society tend to evolve over time. Many tribal cultures for instance share multiple similarities even if the populations being compared have nothing to do with each other. Arab culture as another example has evolved a lot since pre-Islamic times. Ancient Germanic culture or the culture of those the Romans considered "barbarians" is extremely different today. The war between Arminius & Varus highlights points of contention between the ancient Germans & Romans. That being said, the close proximity & contact between our regions & societies has led to some cultural transfusion both in ancient times & perhaps even today. That can be observed in individuals too, if a person hangs out with friends of a different nationality, he or she will unconsciously adopt some elements of their behavior. The Sub-Continent as a whole has various different ethnic groups with varying origins. It is by no means a homogeneous region. The R1a paternal lineage is present in heavy amounts in the regions around the Indus, but there has been ample migrations of different people in our lands alongside assimilation too. The same can be said for other parts of the world too. However, a purer Indo-Iranian appearance is generally found among Kashmiris, Pashtuns, Baloch, parts of Punjab, etc. Many of us retain features found in the Indo-Iranian branch of PIE tribes so we aren't completely different either.