AgNoStiC MuSliM
ADVISORS
![](/styles/default/xenforo/ranks/General.jpg)
- Joined
- Jul 11, 2007
- Messages
- 25,259
- Reaction score
- 87
- Country
- Location
Sure, talk business, India and Bangladesh enjoy a greater market share because of lower tarrifs than Pakistan as well as wars and natural disasters impacting Pakistan's industry and economy, that were out of Pakistan's control.The 'because' doesn't matter, AM. We're talking business here.
I thought your position was that there should be no 'unfair concessions', and using the Indian argument here, 'India's worse economic condition was not Pakistan's fault', so why did Pakistan pay a price in the form of lower tariffs for India and Bangladesh?...and what were the grounds for that even if that did exist?
Personally, I believe this would be true of the time when India was far worse economically than Pakistan.
Both countries enjoyed ripping off Pakistani industry by utilizing 'unfair concessions' in years past, and now you want to throw a fit because Pakistan might do the same.
India and Bangladesh's poor economic condition was not Pakistan's doing, so why did we pay up?The floods and WoT in Pakistan were not of India or Bangladesh's doing. Why should we pay up?
Sure! You have a problem, please take it up with the EU and MMS.Sure! You have a problem, please take it up with the NSG.
We're not in the habit of giving things up voluntarily.
When India and Bangladesh enjoyed lower tariffs, yes Pakistan's losing money was of both countries making.So what?
Your losing money was not of India and Bangladesh's making. Why should they be the ones who are asked to pay?