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Ancient Man and His First Civilizations.Proving Aryan Invasion Theory is a myth and severe lie

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Nah, I am not in a bad mood buddy. You probably felt that I was because my reply was too formal. :D Anyway, everything is fine, what about you? :)
oh gud....:P im gud hw abt u?:police:

i thought u fight 6 months n stay off n are frendly da next 6 months n in gud mood:enjoy:
 
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oh gud....:P im gud hw abt u?:police:

i thought u fight 6 months n stay off n are frendly da next 6 months n in gud mood:enjoy:

I am fine, & I shall be leaving for university soon. I haven't seen you for quite a while, so how was the break?

Lol! Of course not, I am generally in a good mood, & I don't fight with people that have helped me. :)

By the way, you can reply to me in the Whatever thread so that we avoid derailing this one. :lol:
 
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I am fine, & I shall be leaving for university soon. I haven't seen you for quite a while, so how was the break?

Lol! Of course not, I am generally in a good mood, & I don't fight with people that have helped me. :)

By the way, you can reply to me in the Whatever thread so that we avoid derailing this one. :lol:
o u got addmisiion? congrats....

im not still much here...only on weekends....:enjoy: dun hav much time nw...yeah sure on whtever thread....:tongue:
 
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Blahs. 99.99% Indians are sh!t dark and ugly, get over it. And no, I'm not gonna post any pics.:whistle:
 
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So the @faithfulguy ran with his tail between the legs when given a chance to prove what he defecates everywhere! ;)

Indo-Aryan migration models discuss scenarios around the theory of an outside origin of Indo-Aryan peoples, an ascribed ethno-linguistic group that speaks Indo-Aryan languages, the predominant languages of North India. Proponents of Indo-Aryan origin outside of India generally consider migrations into South Asia from Central Asia to have started around 1500 BC, as a slow diffusion during the Late Harappan period.

The best evidence of Indo-Aryan invasion is through linguistics. Because of how the closest language to Sanskrit is old Iranian, and Sanskrit is closer to old Iranian than modern day Northern Indian languages is to Iranian, it clear that the Iranian and Indo-Aryan speakers share the same ancestor.

The question is whether Indo-European language originated in India or originated in another location and was brought to India. If its originated in India, than all Indo European language such as English, Latin and Iranian had their roots in India. This is clearly disproved from linguist study. The only other solution is that Indo Aryan languages and Sanskrit was brought to Indian subcontinent from another location. As for an Indo-Aryan language develop by itself independently from the other Indo-European languages, this would be equivalent of assuming that a helicopter dumping water on the street when its web, an implausible explanation for why the street is wet.
 
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This thread has seen some of the worst discussion on this topic, with opinions swinging at both ends of the pendulum and nevr staying for long in the middle path. :tsk:
 
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Ancient Man and His First Civilizations.Proving Aryan Invasion Theory is a myth and severe lie | Page 9

donald_duck___rape_face_by_dantesgrill-d4vaunk.png

Oh but you believe it. It's nice to see that I manage to save another lost soul from the pit of ignorance.

oh idiot .Aryan invasion and lot of other invasion happened .But we oppose the basic of AIT that Aryans gave us advanced
civilization .thats all.I tried ti prove in this thread that they are just nomadic people that attack an advanced civilization

Blahs. 99.99% Indians are sh!t dark and ugly, get over it. And no, I'm not gonna post any pics.:whistle:

Ok we can tolerate what you want?If you cant contributing anything here then please avoid this thread.

This thread has seen some of the worst discussion on this topic, with opinions swinging at both ends of the pendulum and nevr staying for long in the middle path. :tsk:

why?
 
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Indo-Aryan migration models discuss scenarios around the theory of an outside origin of Indo-Aryan peoples, an ascribed ethno-linguistic group that speaks Indo-Aryan languages, the predominant languages of North India. Proponents of Indo-Aryan origin outside of India generally consider migrations into South Asia from Central Asia to have started around 1500 BC, as a slow diffusion during the Late Harappan period.

The best evidence of Indo-Aryan invasion is through linguistics. Because of how the closest language to Sanskrit is old Iranian, and Sanskrit is closer to old Iranian than modern day Northern Indian languages is to Iranian, it clear that the Iranian and Indo-Aryan speakers share the same ancestor.

As expected, the mulato had nothing to offer, just blind copy paste from a Wikipedia "model" about a "theory". This is where the copy paste is from.

Indo-Aryan migration - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

And the same person was calling it an "obvious fact" earlier. You can't expect better from an intellectually challenged Southern Han whose mental faculties are expectedly far lesser than a Australian aborigine and who had to be civilized by the rampaging Mongols/Manchus/opium giving British. They all apparently failed.

Now one final chance to the Mulato before he is completely proven to be ignorant.

The question is whether Indo-European language originated in India or originated in another location and was brought to India. If its originated in India, than all Indo European language such as English, Latin and Iranian had their roots in India. This is clearly disproved from linguist study. The only other solution is that Indo Aryan languages and Sanskrit was brought to Indian subcontinent from another location. As for an Indo-Aryan language develop by itself independently from the other Indo-European languages, this would be equivalent of assuming that a helicopter dumping water on the street when its web, an implausible explanation for why the street is wet.

How is it clearly disproved? Show us.

How many language groups are there in the Indo-European language family? Did the "Aryan invasion" (even the Wikepedia article mentions immigration") happen in all the places where these languages are spoken?

Why does the uncouth locust mulato not obsess with all the other areas?

Has the reverse been clearly proved? That Sanskrit had its roots in English/Latin etc.?

Did the Aryan invasion happen in all the areas where the Indo Aryan languages are spoken? What evidence is there to support it?

What is the evidence (not mere conjectures) that the proto Indo European language originated in any place that is conjectured? What is the real basis?

Now, I am not saying that the languages are not related. I am just saying that any hypothesis has to apply to all the people who speak these languages.

Of course I don't expect the mulato with less coherence than an aborigine to be able to rationally explain any of this, he can just blabber in opium induced stupor and high.
 
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oh idiot .Aryan invasion and lot of other invasion happened .But we oppose the basic of AIT that Aryans gave us advanced
civilization .thats all.I tried ti prove in this thread that they are just nomadic people that attack an advanced civilization

They "were," but during the Rigvedic period they become more civilized as a result of mingling with the Harappan civilization & begun to add more to the culture it conquered. They became the Indo-Aryan.

Read from page 32 to 34

History of Ancient India: Earliest Times to 1000 A. D. - Radhey Shyam Chaurasia - Google Books

Remember no Aryan, no Hindu.
 
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Did the Aryan invasion happen in all the areas where the Indo Aryan languages are spoken? What evidence is there to support it?

The areas that are of interest are Northern India and Iran, as these were the final resting point of the Aryan migration (invasion), and these 2 region had an existing pre Aryan civilisations.

The 3 major nomadic horse-riding , Indo-European speaking peoples who arrived into the Iranian plateau from Central Asia were the Medes , the Persians ( Parsa ) and the Scythians .

Before the Aryan arrival , Iran was inhabited by the highly advanced, non Indo European language speaking Elamites ,who founded the powerful Elam Empire from 3500 to 600 BC..
 
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They "were," but during the Rigvedic period they become more civilized as a result of mingling with the Harappan civilization & begun to add more to the culture it conquered. They became the Indo-Aryan.

Read from page 32 to 34

History of Ancient India: Earliest Times to 1000 A. D. - Radhey Shyam Chaurasia - Google Books

Remember no Aryan, no Hindu.

Hinduism is not the gift of Aryans.Partly they injected casteism and other evils in to it.Hinduism already flourished in India long before Aryans came and it is better form than Aryans version .In sense you also agreed Nomadic Aryans intervene in to an advanced
civilization .They become civilized but they also destroyed the nobility of Hinduism.
 
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The areas that are of interest are Northern India and Iran, as these were the final resting point of the Aryan migration (invasion), and these 2 region had an existing pre Aryan civilisations.

The 3 major nomadic horse-riding , Indo-European speaking peoples who arrived into the Iranian plateau from Central Asia were the Medes , the Persians ( Parsa ) and the Scythians .

Before the Aryan arrival , Iran was inhabited by the highly advanced, non Indo European language speaking Elamites ,who founded the powerful Elam Empire from 3500 to 600 BC..

The other regions had no pre Aryan civilizations?

The "interest" depends on who is looking and why.

None of what you mention here has any basis other than spurious conjectures based on linguistic studies that can as easily be turned around on the other side.

Watch the video I have shared on this thread and let's see what we have on that basis.
 
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The other regions had no pre Aryan civilizations?

Which pre Aryan Civilisations you have in mind ? China's - Yellow river , Egypt's - Nile , Peru - Norte Chico
If your answer is YES , than my answer is NO
 
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Which pre Aryan Civilisations you have in mind ? China's - Yellow river , Egypt's - Nile , Peru - Norte Chico
If your answer is YES , than my answer is NO

I am talking of the regions currently speaking Indo Aryan family of languages only.
 
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