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I'll make it as simple as I can:
1. The preamble of the UN RESOLUTION 47 (1948) recommends to the Governments of India and Pakistan the following measures as those which in the opinion of the Council are appropriate to bring about a cessation of the fighting and to create proper conditions for a free and impartial plebiscite to decide whether the State of Jammu and Kashmir is to accede to India or Pakistan.
The Government of Pakistan should undertake:
To secure the withdrawal from the State of Jammu and Kashmir of tribesmen and Pakistani nationals not normally resident therein who have entered the State for the purposes of fighting, and to prevent any intrusion into the State of such elements and any furnishing of material aid to those fighting in the State.
That hasn't happened till today. Failure to withdraw Pakistani troops and tribesmen has resulted in the inability of India to put into effect the UN Resolution.
Secondly, these Resolutions are under Chapter VI and therefore non enforceable. Why did Pakistan agree to this? Why did they not insist on including it under Chapter VII which is enforceable?
Now the ball is in your court. Back, by facts, your argument that India indeed 'rejected' a plebiscite. The truth is India never rejected it!! It's been nearly 65 years, but Pakistan has yet to comply with the conditions mentioned in the Resolutions!