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The incredibly bloody Safavid conversion of Iran to Shia Islam

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Why don't you tell me a good holiday destination?

I'll tell you s good holiday destination lol

Ever been to Jamaica ? The land of wood and water ?
Can hook you up with a place to stay if needed .

Brother, believe me, my opinion is irrelevant.

But it is a matter that the SALAF Ulama read Surah Tawbah, and also Sahaba read Surah Tawbah, and they were of opinion of waging war against ALL kuffar and ALL Ahle kitab, even if they were living with peace. According to traditions only exception was the tribe of Bani Hamza (which was a branch of Bani Kananah) with whom longer peace treaty was made,which lasted at max. of 9 months). But for the rest, if they were even living with peace and no special treaty were made, then they were only given 4 months time after which war was declared against them till the time either they accept Islam or they be killed (in case of Kuffar) or pay Jizyaah (in case of Ahle Kitab).

In fact, along with Shafi'i and Ahmed bin Hanbal, other 2 (Malik and Abu Hanifa) all 4 Aima were unanimous that Kuffar had to be killed according to these Quranic verses.

But the later 2 (i.e. Malik and Abu Hanifa) differed only in this that they considered this order of Killing of Mushrikeen to be limited to the Arabia only. But they were unable to put any proof from Quran of Sunnah about the limitation of Arabia only.

Hence other Aima didn't agree with them while Caliph Umar was intended to kill the Majoos, who were not in Arabia, but in Iran.



Please note:

1) Common Order of Quran was of killing of ALL Mushrikeen after 4 months (either Harbi or Non Harbi).
2) Then exception was made if any INDIVIDUAL Mushrik didn't hear the message of Islam, and if he sought Aman (protection), then don't kill him. But this protection was not permanent, but time limited, after which either he has to accept Islam, or to be delivered to Darul Harb (Kafir state).
Compulsion was still there for even that Individual (who sought protection and not killed) to either accept Islam or to leave the Islamic State. Even if that Individual was peaceful and non Harbi, but still he could not live in an Islamic state.
3) It was thought enough as "Hujjat" that few Muslims go to any Mushrik tribe and invited them to Islam. After that waging war against that tribe became ligit and either that tribe had to accept Islam, or to be killed.

I am not going to quote Ahadith here where Sahaba killed Mushrik tribes (I posted those Ahadith earlier, but Mods didn't approve that post).



According to Salaf and Sahaba, this interpretation is not correct. Collective Tribe had absolutely no chance after getting the invitation. Either they to accept Islam or to be killed. While Individuals had time limited protection, after which they had to accept Islam or to leave their homes and go to any kafir state.



Please read different Tafasir which agree that almost all Mushrikeen got 4 months time. Longest was about Bani Hamza (branch of Banu Kananah) who got max. of 9 months due to previous treaty.





I am non related. Let me quote Ghamidi, who is ultimately quoting Salaf Ulama (link):

اسلام قبول نہ کرنے والے کفار کے لیے دو طرح کی سزائیں بیان ہوئی ہیں۔ مشرکین کے بارے میں حکم دیا گیا ہے کہ انھیں قتل کر دیا جائے، جبکہ اہل کتاب کے بارے میں یہ کہا گیا ہے کہ ان سے قتال کر کے انھیں جزیہ ادا کرنے پر مجبور کیا جائے۔۔۔۔ امام شافعی، امام احمد بن حنبل اور ابن حزم جیسے ائمہ نے زیر بحث نصوص میں سے’فاقتلوا المشرکین‘ کو اس باب میں اصل اور اساس قرار دیتے ہوئے یہ نتیجہ اخذ کیا کہ کفار کو قبول اسلام پر مجبور کرنے اور انکار کی صورت میں ان کو قتل کر دینے کا حکم شریعت کے اصل اور مقصود بالذات حکم کی حیثیت رکھتا ہے اور اپنی علت ونوعیت کے لحاظ سے اصلاً اس کا اطلاق دنیا کے تمام کفار پر ہوتا ہے۔ البتہ اہل کتاب یعنی یہود ونصاریٰ اور مجوس کو چونکہ خود اللہ تعالیٰ اور اس کے پیغمبر نے خاص رعایت دیتے ہوئے اپنے مذہب پر قائم رہنے کی اجازت دی ہے، اس لیے وہ اس سے مستثنیٰ ہیں (بحوالہ: ابن حزم، الاحکام، ۵/ ۱۰۴، ۱۰۵۔ ابن القیم، احکام اہل الذمہ، ۱/ ۹۱)۔

I earlier quoted Tafsir al-Qurtabi too for more explanation.

Please also see how these Salaf Ulama quoted the Ijma of Sahaba when 2nd Caliph Umar intended to slaughter Majoos and none of Sahabi deemed it to be against Islam. Even Suyuti himself quoted many traditions about this incident in his Tafsir Dur-e-Manthur (verse 9:29).


At the end, let me show you what ISIS did.

ISIS allowed the Christians in Iraq to pay Jizyaah. But they didn't take Jizyaah from Yazidies and killed their men and took their women as slaves.

This same ISIS ideology is followed by Saudi Salafi Ulama and their followers (as I have posted Islam q&a and Bin Baz earlier). This opinion is also a valid Islam while Salaf Ulama did held this position very clearly.

Please try to understand the Danger.

If any caliphate is formed today by Salafi Groups (like Al-Qaida, Boku Haram, ISIS etc.), and they get the POWER too, then they will indeed kill the non Muslims and take their women as slaves.

Even Saudi Mufties (e.g. Sheikh Fawdhan) gave fatwa as soon as Islamic state gets enough Power, then the institution of Slavery will be started again, as it is Allah who made it Halal to make enemy's women slaves, and no one has the authority to make that thing Halal which had been made Halal by Allah in the Sharia.

Lol
What a load of ojri (tripe)
 
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Would you please tell me the story about replacement of Persian with Iran as name?
What do you mean with this sentences?
we always from Sassanian empire call our country Iran (Eran-shahr)
in Iranian literature, there is Iran as country from past till now

The Modern Persian word Īrān (ایران) derives immediately from Middle Persian Ērān (Pahlavi spelling: ʼyrʼn), first attested in an inscription that accompanies the investiture relief of the first Sassanid king Ardashir I at Naqsh-e Rustam.[2] In this inscription, the king's Middle Persian appellation is ardašīr šāhān šāh ērān while in the Parthian language inscription that accompanies the Middle Persian one the king is titled ardašīr šāhān šāh aryān (Pahlavi: ... ʼryʼn) both meaning king of kings of Iranians.[citation needed]​
 
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What do you mean with this sentences?
we always from Sassanian empire call our country Iran (Eran-shahr)
in Iranian literature, there is Iran as country from past till now

The Modern Persian word Īrān (ایران) derives immediately from Middle Persian Ērān (Pahlavi spelling: ʼyrʼn), first attested in an inscription that accompanies the investiture relief of the first Sassanid king Ardashir I at Naqsh-e Rustam.[2] In this inscription, the king's Middle Persian appellation is ardašīr šāhān šāh ērān while in the Parthian language inscription that accompanies the Middle Persian one the king is titled ardašīr šāhān šāh aryān (Pahlavi: ... ʼryʼn) both meaning king of kings of Iranians.[citation needed]​

In our roman empire we said "Persae" to your country
 
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pretty much like arabs
ha ha ha ha ha ha

We love you that's why we invaded you killed your men took your women and kids to be slaves and guess what to serve our ugly women

We actually tried to send you to the after world for the same love we had and we still have for you

Thats never were Islam that was just expansion in the name of Islam

I'm sorry.

question for my Iranians friends

what is the Persians origin
Because I think some how the Persian are Sumerians migrated to Iran thousand of years ago
that's come to me for big similarities between Persians and the semitic people like Arab

What you guys thinks.
 
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No, its just interesting. I know you named yourself different. Its just that the Roman Empire said "Persae".

How did you call us?
from wiki however maybe is not true

Notwithstanding this inscriptional use of ērān to refer to the Iranian peoples, the use of ērān to refer to the empire (and the antonymic anērān to refer to the Roman territories) is also attested by the early Sassanid period. Both ērān and anērān appear in 3rd century calendrical text written by Mani. In an inscription of Ardashir's son and immediate successor, Shapur I "apparently includes in Ērān regions such as Armenia and the Caucasus which were not inhabited predominantly by Iranians".​
 
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What do you mean with this sentences?
we always from Sassanian empire call our country Iran (Eran-shahr)
in Iranian literature, there is Iran as country from past till now

The Modern Persian word Īrān (ایران) derives immediately from Middle Persian Ērān (Pahlavi spelling: ʼyrʼn), first attested in an inscription that accompanies the investiture relief of the first Sassanid king Ardashir I at Naqsh-e Rustam.[2] In this inscription, the king's Middle Persian appellation is ardašīr šāhān šāh ērān while in the Parthian language inscription that accompanies the Middle Persian one the king is titled ardašīr šāhān šāh aryān (Pahlavi: ... ʼryʼn) both meaning king of kings of Iranians.[citation needed]​

Would you please stop quoting from wiki, instead please share the root of the name and how it become the current name?

In return, I promise to cross-check it for today's usage.
 
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Would you please stop quoting from wiki, instead please share the root of the name and how it become the current name?

In return, I promise to cross-check it for today's usage.
we are Iranian period
you are free to call us every thing you want but that does not change anything.
 
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from wiki however maybe is not true

Notwithstanding this inscriptional use of ērān to refer to the Iranian peoples, the use of ērān to refer to the empire (and the antonymic anērān to refer to the Roman territories) is also attested by the early Sassanid period. Both ērān and anērān appear in 3rd century calendrical text written by Mani. In an inscription of Ardashir's son and immediate successor, Shapur I "apparently includes in Ērān regions such as Armenia and the Caucasus which were not inhabited predominantly by Iranians".​

You called the roman empire aneran?
 
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You called the roman empire aneran?
I don't think so but base on wiki yes
I read in Iranian literature and poem RUM for roman empire but I am not sure for that
also RUM mostly mean the place of current turkey and Anatolia in Iranian literature as well

I think other member can help you

@Shapur Zol Aktaf @Gothic
 
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I don't think so but base on wiki yes
I read in Iranian literature and poem RUM for roman empire but I am not sure for that
also RUM mostly mean the place of current turkey and Anatolia in Iranian literature as well

I think other member can help you

@Shapur Zol Aktaf @Gothic

The RUM term is used here for the description of Greeks which living in Anatolia/Turkey. Interesting!
 
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Safavid was also a turkic dynasty.
Iran was controlled almost 1000 years by Turkish dynasties.
Just as the Arabs were controlled by Seldjuq Turks and Ottomans.
It was a power struggle among Turks.
However the ottomans called Safavids acem

The Safavids were of Kurdish or Persian or iranic ancestry like gilaki or mazendarani because they were shaf'ae while the Turks were hanafi by madhab
 
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However the ottomans called Safavids acem

The Safavids were of Kurdish or Persian or iranic ancestry like gilaki or mazendarani because they were shaf'ae while the Turks were hanafi by madhab

However, i dont care. Past has passed.
Let's talk about what we can do against a new syces-picot agreement today.
 
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