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Since Earliest Historical Times Hinduism Was Never Popular in Pakistan

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Because Indians are Pagans and Ever since arabs invaded Sindh,we can say for sure if the native population survived.

Whatever the Indians were and are we respect the Indian beliefs as long as they do not tinker with our heritage and identity and claim it as theirs. The facts of history can not be denied for long. A limited number of Muslims who came with Mohammad Bin Qasim won against Raja Dahir because the local population consisting of Jat, Mids and Buddhists supported Qasim. They supported Qasim because the Brahmin Raja was a tyrant and relentlessly persecuted the local population and they wanted to get rid of him. This has been mentioned in historical narrations in addition to Chach Nama.
 
In that case how can India claim IVC, as India is also less than 100 years old.



First of all, religion was not the only basis of creation of Pakistan. There were many other factors which were as important and highlighting only religion as the basis of Two Nation Theory is a narrow view which some Pakistanis and majority of Indian Hindus believe:

Religious differences
Governing differences
Civilizational differences
Cultural differences
Societal/Social differences
Economic differences
Political differences

And while you Indians accuse us Pakistanis of using religion as the only basis of Two Nation Theory, you do the same and use your own religious scriptures as authority to prove your identity. The example is very clear from your own statement. You say the while the IVC was discovered only 100 years ago, the Vedas, Ramayana, Mahabharata, Puranas, Vedanta... these are thousands of year old and Indian identity is not based on the IVC exclusively. What are these books that you are talking about – these are your religious scriptures which you base your identity on. You accuse Pakistanis to have used religion to highlight the Two nation Theory – you are also using religion to identify your identity and also geography.

There are many Indian Hindus who state that Rig Veda and other Vedas are words of God and do not represent any history. Yet most of you cite these religious scriptures to highlight India’s history and India’s geography.

When Indians accuse us that Mohammad Bin Qasim is perceived as the first Pakistani, the Indians also use their religious scriptures to outline their history and their civilization and the raison-detre of India’s existence. Get over your own demons before you have the right to accuse others of doing the same.

To prove the fact that IVC is a Pakistani heritage, religion is not used as the reason. It is the history supported by archeology and geography which is used to bring out the facts. Contrarily, Indians use religion and religious scriptures to lay their claim.



There was no Republic of India as well.
But India was.... Vedas may be religious to people but they are historical too... and these vedas were followed by people living in the areas presently called pakistan long before identy of pakistan were ever conceived.... to call those people anything but Hindus is purely brain f@rt..
 
I have already told u how bogus any chach/chaas or Dahi Nama is,written 6 centuries after the event.

We dont have a time machine to verify anything.

let us go tell the people of the world the story and we ll see whose version is believed.
 
I have already told u how bogus any chach/chaas or Dahi Nama is,written 6 centuries after the event.

We dont have a time machine to verify anything.

let us go tell the people of the world the story and we ll see whose version is believed.

I am sure they will believe me, but for the Indians. :)
 
But India was.... Vedas may be religious to people but they are historical too... and these vedas were followed by people living in the areas presently called pakistan long before identy of pakistan were ever conceived.... to call those people anything but Hindus is purely brain f@rt..

Oh but the first Vedic and later Hindu scriptures were written much later and many Indian Hindus state that these were written within current Indian borders. Therefore, the people of IVC never read Vedas. Sanskrit was written and read by a limited number of higher cast Brahmins. The majority never read it as is the case even now. How many of you Indians have read Rig Veda and other later scriptures - very very few if at all.

And there were and are many many people of India who believe that Rig Veda presents a monotheistic message and that idolatry as practiced by Indian Hindus is forbidden in Hinduism. Swami Dayanand Saraswati was one such scholar.

It has been proven here that majority of the people in Pakistan since the earliest times were not followers of Hindu culture and the number of such followers was never in majority during any time since the earliest times.
 
dayanand saraswati is a moron who worsened the hindu sikh ties,

please stop using his name as an expert on anything.

You want to talk about the vedas,the real experts were the south indian brahmins who had migrated long ago from the north and preserved the vedic knowledge.

There are 4 mutts in India exclusively for each of the vedas and they are huge institutions.

Vedas are beyond silly comparisons of mono/polytheism.

it is not a matter of sar jhukna,the silly exercise of sar jhukna,vedas are way beyond all that.

There are chants,mantras,rules,astronomy,mathematics,geometry,science and so on.

A lot of the books got lost or were burnt by invaders but the class act called human DNA is still there.
 
dayanand saraswati is a moron who worsened the hindu sikh ties,

please stop using his name as an expert on anything.

You want to talk about the vedas,the real experts were the south indian brahmins who had migrated long ago from the north and preserved the vedic knowledge.

There are 4 mutts in India exclusively for each of the vedas and they are huge institutions.

Vedas are beyond silly comparisons of mono/polytheism.

it is not a matter of sar jhukna,the silly exercise of sar jhukna,vedas are way beyond all that.

There are chants,mantras,rules,astronomy,mathematics,geometry,science and so on.

A lot of the books got lost or were burnt by invaders but the class act called human DNA is still there.

Arrey - but Swami Dayanand Saraswati died in October 1883.

Have you read Rig Veda - be honest. And do you believe that the Vedas explain history or do you believe that these are words of God only, and can not be used for narration of or linkage of history or geography as many Indians do this.
 
i am a girl and i cant read the vedas.

my papa n uncles have done so.

PS: It is the word of god or people with unimaginable level of intuition and idea of the history of the world and whatever scientific theories we know today is a mere tip of the iceberg.

I request you to read up about scalar energy fields,if u can understand what they are.
 
because women are emotional and the tradition allows only the men to read.
 
Oh but the first Vedic and later Hindu scriptures were written much later and many Indian Hindus state that these were written within current Indian borders. Therefore, the people of IVC never read Vedas. Sanskrit was written and read by a limited number of higher cast Brahmins. The majority never read it as is the case even now. How many of you Indians have read Rig Veda and other later scriptures - very very few if at all.

And there were and are many many people of India who believe that Rig Veda presents a monotheistic message and that idolatry as practiced by Indian Hindus is forbidden in Hinduism. Swami Dayanand Saraswati was one such scholar.

It has been proven here that majority of the people in Pakistan since the earliest times were not followers of Hindu culture and the number of such followers was never in majority during any time since the earliest times.
They might have not "read" it but there is no reason to believe that they did not "hear" or "recite" it. Moreover, many gods, symbols and other religious practices were carried over to vedas from IVC. Best examples are symbol OM and Pashupati. Yet another fallacy in your argument is Vedas being written in present day India (even if some Indians claim), how can you be sure it did not reach IVC people? I mean, where did IVC people go? just vanished into thin air???? Since there was no evidence of separate religion at IVC, there there is definite evidence of carry over of some symbols to present day Hinduism, they have to be Hindus or early Hindus and the religion has changed to so much since then.
Majority Hindus do not believe that idolatry is banned in either Rig Veda or any other scripture. They say there is one/two supreme creator but explicitly allow worshiping other gods/goddesses/natural elements. What you said is a BS propagated by other religious people to convert Hindus. There are Hindus (like me) who say concept of god is BS. Doesn't make one less of a Hindu...
Hindus don't need to read any vedas to be Hindus and there are plenty of summary available... and one of the greatest epic in sanskrit is written by non brahmin...
One simple question to you, if IVC were not hindus, what were they and what evidence you have to back up your answer?
 
Arrey - but Swami Dayanand Saraswati died in October 1883.

Have you read Rig Veda - be honest. And do you believe that the Vedas explain history or do you believe that these are words of God only, and can not be used for narration of or linkage of history or geography as many Indians do this.

I have read the RigVeda. I have told you before also that it is an assorted collection of hymns that set out to examine the nature of existence, worship and creation. It also honours the various existing dieties, notably Indra. Nowhere does it state that there is only one God or that worshipping many Gods is a sin/is prohibited.

In large parts, it is a dialogue between Indra and his worshippers. A few hymns praise the Lord, a few ask for his blessings, a few cite his achievements while a few are written such that they are meant to be his reply to his followers. Within these dialogues are certain clues about the people to whom this belonged to historically. One of the reasons why they may have historical veracity was actually given by you itself. Remember when you told that the RigVeda referred to outsiders as Mleccha, which might be a reference to Meluha?

The Vedas are not very different from the Testaments or Quran & Hadiths. While a few verses can be historically verified, a few verses cannot be believed by anyone in their right mind! (no offense meant to anyone)
 
They might have not "read" it but there is no reason to believe that they did not "hear" or "recite" it. Moreover, many gods, symbols and other religious practices were carried over to vedas from IVC. Best examples are symbol OM and Pashupati. Yet another fallacy in your argument is Vedas being written in present day India (even if some Indians claim), how can you be sure it did not reach IVC people? I mean, where did IVC people go? just vanished into thin air???? Since there was no evidence of separate religion at IVC, there there is definite evidence of carry over of some symbols to present day Hinduism, they have to be Hindus or early Hindus and the religion has changed to so much since then.
Majority Hindus do not believe that idolatry is banned in either Rig Veda or any other scripture. They say there is one/two supreme creator but explicitly allow worshiping other gods/goddesses/natural elements. What you said is a BS propagated by other religious people to convert Hindus. There are Hindus (like me) who say concept of god is BS. Doesn't make one less of a Hindu...
Hindus don't need to read any vedas to be Hindus and there are plenty of summary available... and one of the greatest epic in sanskrit is written by non brahmin...
One simple question to you, if IVC were not hindus, what were they and what evidence you have to back up your answer?

There is lot of difference in hearing or reciting a small part of it and can not be replaced by the understanding one gathers after reading the Rig Veda and other scriptures.

The language of the IVC has not been deciphered so far. However it is known that it was written from right to left. According to linguists Sanskrit originated around 1000 BC. This is well after the IVC faded out. Therefore the Sanskrit written symbol of OM could possibly not have been present during the times of the IVC. Secondly, Vedic culture also emerged after the fading out of IVC. Anything which was copied from thousands of years earlier and used for a particular purpose thousands of years later, does not automatically indicate that the earlier usage was also for the same purpose.

The mere fact that the Vedas originated after fading out of the IVC clearly indicate that the people of IVC could not have read it. And also the fact that these scriptures being in Sanskrit, which was evolved much later, also substantiate this fact that the people of IVC never had the opportunity to read these scriptures.

The people of IVC did not vanish in thin air and their descendants are present as majority Pakistanis. Hinduism was never practiced as a majority religion within the landmass of Pakistan since the earliest times and history proves this as a fact.
 
sanskrit is a very old language more than 5000 years old,who are linguists?

most timelines of people involve around the times of jesus and mohammad,there is no carbon dating done to prove anything.
 
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