we have not. IT is crystal clear
Quran surah al-maidah verse 45.
No, not really.. you have taken that out of context.
the Ayat points to the revelation made to the Bani-Israel that they should have followed a just system..where the punishment is equal to the offense. Moreover, forgiveness was made prime and this criteria of fair judgement based on equal punishment was the one that was enforced and not an eye for eye or nose for nose which is a metaphor.
So the idea is for justice based on equal judgement, which may then derived from the nature of the offense or otherwise.
If we use your logic to explain it to a non-muslim the first objection they would spew on it would be that does the Quran(an-aouzubillah) suggest that a rapist be forced to give up his wife/sister/mother/female relative for rape?
The ayat that is better suited to explain that lies in Surah Baqrah.. ayat 178
Whose translation is
:
"O those of faith(Muslims)!, with regards to (those) murdered it has been made Farz(obligatory) on you to use Qasas(relation of one event to another). If a woman has committed murder then Only that woman is to be killed, if a slave then only that slave(is to be killed). Woman for a woman(the woman who murdered the other woman be executed) then for those who are forgiven by their human brother then according to the norm(at the time..that is current time) this should be accepted/engaged and blood-payment(money or whatever) be given amicably. This is a blessing and convenience from your lord and if after this someone engages in violation or excess(of the settlement) then there is horrible punishment for him"
Now , lets look at what this Ayat says regarding the subject of murder and its settlement
there are already established forms of manslaughter.. voluntary and involuntary.
Only in voluntary manslaughter there is a need for Qasas or execution of the murderer.. in all other cases it is blood-payment( or monetary penalty..to be compensated for either by the person.. or in his inability.. by the state).
There is also one more thing to know in this Ayat.. that the Human Brother is literally Human Brother..Ehsaan'i.
Not a Muslim brother, or a jew or christian or Hindu or atheist.
A Human brother.. hence this law is applicable within an Islamic state for the judgement and settlement of murder for any citizen of the Islamic state regardless of their religion.
This then is a better argument for the death penalty as it is presented in the Quran and NOT what you have quoted which has been pasted with an ambiguous translation and out of context.
SO
Now, please return to the actual question which I asked.. as to where does it say in the Quran and Sunnah on the interpretation of how to diagnose or decode how the death or murder occured..or rape or zina was done.
etc etc etc.