Sindho was always the original name of our land used by locals.persians couldn't pronounce the 's' in it and used indho greeks used the same word indos in their literature not indika after learning the name from persians. . indika is Latin for " of indos.". Greeks used to call our land indos for its river indus....and it was NEVER used for present day "india".so this is unrelated to you.
Please don't labour the point. You are wrong in every respect, but this is not the forum to explain, unless you, on your own volition, persist in this illusion.
Joe may have moved on, but I have all the time on my hand. so Labbaik, and I'll explain. Indika referred to all of the subcontinent/peninsula specifically including the Gangetic plains the Greeks knew about. it wasn't limited to some arbitrary four modern provinces.
But why though? Why exactly do you have so much time and energy to have random arguments on a pakistani forum with random anonymous people
you better should... you are in the wrong department JOE..
If you say so.
That was a very pleasant surprise, thank you very much. May I DM you?
Not terribly surprising, honestly.
Indos was only for the region around the indus river...your land never became part of the greek satraps..you were discovered much much later by greeks.who was the frst greek to visit your land?...The first time you got tied to the word "india"' was when the British colonists arrived and conquered Southern Asia, in the 17th Century AD as part of their Indian Imperial Empire of South Asia; they expanded the term and applied the name to the entire region of South Asia and called it “India” by following that regional example and formally applied the Greek name for Sindh under her entire domain of the Raj respectively. ..
sure
