Aryans moved into Indus region btween 1500 to 1000 BC but it was only in 700 BC that their Aryan priest begun their oral incantation of the Rig veda hymns.
As i have stated earlier, you are a propagandist and does not have a shread of intellectual honesty.
No one know (and it cannot be found unless you have time machine) when Aryan priests started reciting Rig Veda,(although it is absolutely retarded conjecture that a text survived without being passed on to future generations,but i would play along to humour you). What could be known by using Philology and Linguistics is
when Rig vedic verses were
composed;and consensus among linguistics is that it was composed between 1500-1200BCE. Some take a wider estimate of 1700-1100BCE just to be sure.
Here from Wikipedia page.
It is one of the oldest extant texts in any Indo-European language. Philological and linguistic evidence indicate that the Rigveda was composed in the north-western region of the Indian subcontinent, most likely between c. 1500–1200 BCE, though a wider approximation of c. 1700–1100 BCE has also been given
Linguists, whose profession is to develop chronology of languages and Ancient texts are much more relaible than wet dream of a propagandist like you.
Pre Zoroastrian Persians/Medes and Indo Aryans shared the same religious beliefs .The spiritual beings mentioned in the Avesta and the Rig-Veda, shows that the original religion of the Persians and Indian Aryans were similar and closely related.
The contradictory position of asuras portrayed in Avestan vs Rig Veda was due to the reformation wrought by Zoroaster in 600 BC, who perceived the gods (devas) worshiped in Persia where evil and deemed unworthy of adoration Zoroaster - "if the gods do aught shameful, they are not gods." This reformation brought about the reversal in the role of Asura in the Zoroastrianism after 600 BC.
It has nothing to do with civil strife between 2 Aryan groups, and to claim that there asura vs deva conflict as such is a fallacy, to back date Rig Veda to 1600 BC is an over exaggeration
Did you conocted this bullshit or was it supplied by one of your Pseudo-intellectuals.
Pre Zoroastrian Persians/Medes and Indo Aryans shared the same religious beliefs .The spiritual beings mentioned in the Avesta and the Rig-Veda, shows that the original religion of the Persians and Indian Aryans were similar and closely related.
Both Indo-Aryans and Persians are descendent of same ethnic group called Aryans. Of course they had same Gods in the begining. The divergence between Persiand and Indo Aryans came about due to difference in values these two groups assigned to various Gods. Asurs are lesser Gods in Rig Veda while Devas are lesser Gods of Avestan literature. The very reason of migration could have been religious strife to begin with.
The contradictory position of asuras portrayed in Avestan vs Rig Veda was due to the reformation wrought by Zoroaster in 600 BC, who perceived the gods (devas) worshiped in Persia where evil and deemed unworthy of adoration Zoroaster - "if the gods do aught shameful, they are not gods." This reformation brought about the reversal in the role of Asura in the Zoroastrianism after 600 BC
This is again a display of blatant shamelessness and propaganda. It is wrong on so many level that it does not even begger a refutal.(but would be done to embarass you further, if that is even possible)
First; Zorastarianism developed in Eastern Iran, far far away from Fake Dravidian (Elamite) homeland of Elam.
Zoroastrianism arose in the eastern region of the ancient Persian Empire, when the religious philosopher Zoroaster simplified the pantheon of early Iranian gods
Second; you have a gall to state that Persians adopted culture of people that they annhilated completely. It would be a one off case where culture of defeated people supplanted that of victors.
Third; every scholar worth his/her salt or falafel believes that Zorastarianism developed from common Indo-Iranian religion, not Elam religion.
According to Richard Foltz the roots of Zoroastrianism emerged from a common prehistoric Indo-Iranian religious system dating back to the early 2nd millennium BCE.
Fourth; Ahura Mazada's characterstics are similar to Varuna ( an Asur) of Rig Veda. In Early Rig Vedic period, Varuna was the Chief god of even Indo-Aryans. He was supplanted by Indra in middle-Rig Vedic only.
Fifth;How come Elamites, who could never make contact with Indo-Aryans (unless they have a teleportation machine)? Your original assertion was that Elamites aka Fake Dravidians were Asurs of Rig Veda. How come they become Asur in text of people who did not knew that they even exist.
Sixth; Who is talking about Zorastarianism. Zorastarianism is like Hinduism which is a derivative of old Persian Religion (like Hinduism is a derivative of VEdic Indo-Aryan religion). It should not have been brought into debate, but since it has been; could the question as to why Ahura Mazada ( Varun, an Asur) was main diety of Persian Pantheon? Why is there no mention of Indra in Positive term in any old Persian text? If religion of both Persians and Indo-Iranians were same (not similar) why were their Chief Gods different?
Seventh; Do you even know characterstics of Ahura Mazada or Varuna. Both are upkeepers of morality and vindictive non forgiving gods. They are pretty much copy of one another.
It has nothing to do with civil strife between 2 Aryan groups, and to claim that there asura vs deva conflict as such is a fallacy, to back date Rig Veda to 1600 BC is an over exaggeration
Yes, Yes, Your mythical Zuper Dravidians teleporting to India is a more relaible theory than the one something which has been proved by linguists.
You are going over board with your imagination, did I make any claims on cross over ?
So according to you, your mythical Zuper Dravidian Elamites never come even within 500miles of Aryans, yet they are Asuras of Rig Veda.
Logic works in funny ways on Planet Periyar.
I am just using the Elamo-Dravidian Linguistic hypothesis to substantiate the contradictory interpret of Deva vs Asura in the Persian and Indian text
A Hypothesis which is as fake as rest of your post. There is no Elamo-Dravidian language family except in your fertile imagination. Kiene,aucun,Zlich, nada.
Oh really, please provide the supporting source to substantiate your claim, thank you
I could not post links due to lack of Post count and time spend on this forum.
But how hard is it to google Rig veda, or buy a relaible book on Indian history and culture.
PS: If you are bent on peddling lies like you are doing (in order to compensate for your inferiority complex), Don't bother replying. This discussion has gone long enough for everyone to know who has fact and logic on his side, and any further discussion would be just repetition of what has been stated.
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