You claim that the Asura vs Deva was a civil strifle between the Indo Aryans and Persians, where is the historic evidence Persian fought against the Indo-Aryans, ? When the Persians fought against the Elamites, Babylonians and Assyrian Empires.
Thus, its only logical that the Asuras in the Vedas refers to the Dravidians (Elamites) of the IVC . your timeline has no relevance in this discussion as Elamites were in Iran from 2700 BC till 600 BC. Indo-Aryans arrival in IVC was in 1500 BC Rig Veda and Indo Euporeans - Medes /Persian arrived in Iran after 1200 BC.
This is most stupid piece of crap that i have read.
Indo-Aryan and Persian strife is of Pre-historic era, when history was not written chronologically and has to be deciphered from epics. Existence of Asura and Deva in Aryan literature proves strife, not other way around. There was no recording of history in 1800-1200 BCE, but history was recorded in 500BCE thus Persian-Elamite war are known in much more detail.
And your convulted sense of logic does not have a leg to stand upon. Indo-Aryans are not Persians. These are two different group who originated from a same ethnic group. The fact that Elamites were fighting Persians ,that too in 600 BCE not 1600, has no relation to vedic texts written in 1600 BCE. The fact that Rig veda was written during/just after seperation of two Aryan groups and at least 400 years before western branch of that group (persians) came into contact with Elamites, and contains complete description of Deva-Asura conflict removes the base from beneath your arguments.
Unless of course you believe , like most of Periyar freaks, that Elamites (super fake Dravidians) had teleportation machine and could reach India without running into Persians who by this time have completely seperated from Indo-Aryans and thus did not had any affect on Late Rig Veda literature, your theory is absurd.
Another glaring loophole in yout putrid convulted logic is that both Vedic and Avestan texts mention Deva-Asura conflict. This could only happen if this conflics occured before seperation of Persians and Indo-Aryans, ie before 2000BCE
I said they moved east , why you stretching your imagination to India, when most likely the Elamites populated the regions (-i.e Baluchistan) you have mentioned
Again this stupidity.
As if Elamites moving across whole of Persia into Baluchistan, is not a superhuman feat, you are also having a nightfall by thinking them as Asuras, While completely forgetting that Vedas were composed in Punjab-Haryana region of India, at least 500 Km away from abode that you are postulating(Baluchistan) for your mythical Dravidians (Elamites) .
I have never heard of any IVC expert called Periyar, my stand is based on Elamo-Dravidian hypothesis
Your stand is based on propaganda kool Aid that you and you friends drink in Periyar circle Jerk to overcome your inferiority complex (based on your being from low caste).
Elam language is a "Language isolate". It does not have enough similarity with any language group to be considered part of that. I could not post links (thank your gods for that), yet so i would post quotes about Elam.
Elamite is regarded by the vast majority of linguists as a language isolate, as it has no demonstrable relationship to the neighbouring Semitic languages,Indo-European languages, or to Sumerian, despite having adopted the Sumerian-Akkadian cuneiform script. David McAlpin proposed an Elamo-Dravidian family connecting Elamite with the Dravidian languages of India.Václav Blažek proposed a relation with the Afroasiatic languages of the Near East,and George Starostin published a lexicostatistic analysis finding Elamite to be approximately equidistant from Nostratic and Semitic,but these ideas have not been picked up by mainstream historical linguists.
Periyar freaks even call Finnish, a Dravidian language; something which is utterly laughable.
Vedas was a based on a oral tradition , early Brahmi script was written in 5th BC. Avestan in 4th AD, so it cant be 800 BC
Now this is another stupidity. 5th century BCE is latest date by which Brahmi was being used as evident from inscriptions. It does not mean that it was not used before that .It may have been written but may not have survived due to usage of perishable medium to write it.
What is certain is that Rig-Veda was
composed in 1500-200 BCE period as proved from linguistic studies ( It is a scienticif field of study of Languages, not some Kool Aid drinking Propaganda club). Your arguments does noy have a leg to stand on.
Ahura Mazda is also equated with the gods Mithra, Yahweh and Bel
So what!
Varuna is most vindictive of all Gods in Vedic literature and does share characterstics with vindictive Semetic gods.
Here from your Own link
Varuna:
noun, Hinduism.
1.
the Vedic god of natural and moral law, probably a sky god originally: thought to correspond to the Zoroastrian god Ahura Mazda.
