First in Makkah there was no order for RASOOL SAW to hit back but in Madinah when Jihad was allowed many people were eliminated for Blasphemy
The order for Jihad did not over-rule the orders for justice and proportionality. In fact, the Madani verses I quoted in my previous post were revealed long after the order for Jihad. Again, you are wrong.
I have given examples of were solely killed for this crime
No, you have not. In every example you gave, they were guilty of a lot more than just blasphemy.
in fact in one incident a man came and abused HAZRAT ABU BAKAR RA he was caliph at that time some one asked permission to kill that man he said no this punishment is reserved solely for one who abuses RASOOL SAW
Source for this incident? Is it a Sahih Hadith? Who narrated it?
This is contradicting the Quran, because according to Surah al Ma'idah verse 32, the death penalty is allowed in only two cases:
1)As a punishment for murder
2)For spreading corruption in the land.
It is debatable if this corruption includes blasphemy or not, but according to Surah At-Tawbah verse 74, Surah Al Qasas verse 55, Surah Al Muzzammil verse 10 and Surah Al A'raaf verse 199 (which I have quoted multiple times before), blasphemy is to be ignored, thus it is not included in the corruption.
''Because of that, We decreed upon the Children of Israel that whoever kills a soul unless for a soul or for corruption [done] in the land - it is as if he had slain mankind entirely...'' [al Ma'idah 5:32]
And you have not answered any of my questions.
If the penalty for blasphemy is death:
Why didn't the Holy Prophet (s.a.w) allow his companions to kill the two groups of Jews who directly insulted him?
Why did he forgive the hundreds of blasphemers from Makkah and Taif?
Why did he forgive the Bedouin who urinated in a mosque, right infront of him?
Why does the Quran command us to ignore blasphemers?
Why does the Quran command us to give proportional punishments?