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Iran and the Shah: What Really Happened

So what? If my mother tongue is English than I'm English and as Timurs and Baburs mother-tongue were Chagatai Turkic they were ethnically Turkic. It's simply as that. The Barlas were never pure Mongols but rather a mixed Turco-Mongol nomadic confederation who got completely Turkicized

The Turkish and Mongolian language are just as related as Swedish and Kurdish and it's not even proven if Turkic and Mongolic languages belong to a greater language family but that's another topic

LOL. It still does not change the fact that the Mughals and Timurids were Mongols originally. At least PATERNALLY. According to most sources I have seen. You can make all kind of excuses from today until judgement day. Nobody has denied any Turkification or intermarriages with Turks at one point. The Burlas tribe is just considered Mongol in origin by most. That this tribe at one point in history got Turkified is not going to change that.

The original homeland of both Turks and Mongols were close to each other and those two peoples had many similar characteristics initially and also worked together. Saying that there were no ties or trying to make it sound like the distance between Swedes and Kurds (who have nothing in common) is far-fetched IMO. But whatever floats your boat.
 
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LOL. It still does not change the fact that the Mughals and Timurids were Mongols originally. At least PATERNALLY. According to most sources I have seen. You can make all kind of excuses from today until judgement day. Nobody has denied any Turkification or intermarriages with Turks at one point. The Burlas tribe is just considered Mongol in origin by most. That this tribe at one point in history got Turkified is not going to change that.

The original homeland of both Turks and Mongols were close to each other and those two peoples had many similar characteristics initially and also worked together. Saying that there were no ties or trying to make it sound like the distance between Swedes and Kurds (who have nothing in common) is far-fetched IMO. But whatever floats your boat.


At the time of the establishment of the Timurid and Mughal empires the rulers were Turkic and spoke Chagatai Turkic as mother tongue. Nothing Mongolic about them

I don't deny that Turks and Mongols worked together and almost all successor states of the Mongol empire were Turkic anyway. The thing is that all steppe nomadic peoples were culturally related to each other don't matter if Magyars, ancient Turks, Scythians or Mongols. I don't find the comparison with Kurds and Swedes too far-fetched. Turks and Mongols evolved into totally different directions with different customs, lifestyles and religions. The Kurdish and Swedish language belong to the same language family but we can't say the same thing about Turkic and Mongolic languages.
 
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It does seem pretty clear here and also what I have argued all the time;

Origins
According to the Secret History of the Mongols, written during the reign of Ögedei Khan [r. 1229-1241], the Barlas shared ancestry with the Borjigin, the imperial clan of Genghis Khan and his successors, and other Mongol clans. The leading clan of the Barlas traced its origin to Qarchar Barlas,[1] head of one of Chagatai's regiments. Qarchar Barlas was a descendant of the legendary Mongol warlord Bodonchir (Bodon Achir; Bodon'ar Mungqaq), who was also considered a direct ancestor of Genghis Khan.[5]

Due to extensive contacts with the native population of Central Asia, the tribe had adopted the religion of Islam,[2] and the Chagatai language, a Turkic language of the Qarluq branch, which was heavily influenced by Arabic and Persian.[6]

Barlas - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

So no you won't convince me of the Barlas tribe not being Mongol in origin originally. Notice originally here.

They are not called Turco-Mongol for a reason are they? They = Mughals and Timurids. Basically the same lineage anyway.

Sri Lankan langauges and Portugeuse also belong
to the same greater language family. Yet those two people have nothing to do with each other, other than this connection. Mongols and Turks might not share linguistic ties (I believe they do anyway) but in terms of culture and many other aspects (appearance) there were obviously much closer ties than between a Swede and Kurd.
 
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It does seem pretty clear here and also what I have argued all the time;

Origins
According to the Secret History of the Mongols, written during the reign of Ögedei Khan [r. 1229-1241], the Barlas shared ancestry with the Borjigin, the imperial clan of Genghis Khan and his successors, and other Mongol clans. The leading clan of the Barlas traced its origin to Qarchar Barlas,[1] head of one of Chagatai's regiments. Qarchar Barlas was a descendant of the legendary Mongol warlord Bodonchir (Bodon Achir; Bodon'ar Mungqaq), who was also considered a direct ancestor of Genghis Khan.[5]

Due to extensive contacts with the native population of Central Asia, the tribe had adopted the religion of Islam,[2] and the Chagatai language, a Turkic language of the Qarluq branch, which was heavily influenced by Arabic and Persian.[6]

Barlas - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

So no you won't convince me of the Barlas tribe not being Mongol in origin originally. Notice originally here.

They are not called Turco-Mongol for a reason are they? They = Mughals and Timurids. Basically the same lineage anyway.

Yes but they mixed so much with Turkic peoples that most members of the Barlas clan were Turkic untill all of them got Turkicized. Babur as well as Timur considered themselves Turkic. End of discussion
 
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Anyway @Charon 2 there is no reason to argue this as we won't agree.

My view is the following.

Originally the linage of Mughals and Timurid (Mughals were themselves descendants of Timurid so it is one lineage) were Mongols but later they came into contact with nearby Turkic tribes and became Turkified. Then that lineage moved to Uzbekistan where they intermarried Turks and later they made the final step to Northern India where they made their capital. Here they started intermarrying mostly locals but also Persians and Arabs. Their culture was a mixture of Mongol/Turkic military influences, and Persian/Arab court influences and obviously the local influences. They were probably already called Turco-Mongols when they reached Uzbekistan. I think most sources stay this even so not probably but they were.

Today their descendants live all over South Asia but they look like your average South Asian. I think a few users on PDF even claim to be Mughals.

Calling them purely Turkic is denying a lot of history just for the sake of nationalism.

By that logic Ottomans were more Georgian/Caucasian/Slavic than Turks because they mostly intermarried non-Turks, ruled an Arab system, used Arab titles, spoke Ottoman Language which was much more Arabic than Turkic etc. One could make a similar case but obviously it would be dismissed because of the earliest origins of the Ottomans. Similarly ruling families always married other dynasts and foreigners. Yet we always look at their paternal origins to defy their origin. The origin of Ottomans are clear. They are Turkic peoples from Turkmenistan belonging to the Oghuz tribe/clan/larger family call it what you want.

My family (Makkawi Hashemites) have intermarried with foreigners too but we will always remain an Hijazi/Arabian/Semite clan.

Got my point here or not?

PS: It's never about what you consider yourself. The Savoy family (Italian royal family) consider themselves Italian nowadays but are undoubtedly of French origin originally. Similarly the Spanish Royal Family consider themselves Spanish but they belong to the French Bourbon dynasty. The Danish royal family consider themselves Danish but are Germans originally. Similarly with the British royal family that is German originally. Not British or English as many falsely believe.

The Russian Tsars were basically Germans ruling Russia too despite being called Romanov and being Russian first and foremost. They spoke German among each other. etc. etc.

All what I have written here about those royal families and their origins is correct. You can research this on your own.

The King of Morocco considers himself an Moroccan but his lineage is from Hijaz. I was speaking about their paternal origins not what they called themselves nor did I say anything about them NOT intermarrying with Turks, becoming Turkified etc. You were just angry because somebody challenged your initial claim so you were more busy insulting and not reading what I actually wrote.
 
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Anyway @Charon 2 there is no reason to argue this as we won't agree.

My view is the following.

Originally the linage of Mughals and Timurid (Mughals were themselves descendants of Timurid so it is one lineage) were Mongols but later they came into contact with nearby Turkic tribes and became Turkified. Then that lineage moved to Uzbekistan where they intermarried Turks and later they made the final step to Northern India where they made their capital. Here they started intermarrying mostly locals but also Persians and Arabs. Their culture was a mixture of Mongol/Turkic military influences, and Persian/Arab court influences and obviously the local influences. They were probably already called Turco-Mongols when they reached Uzbekistan. I think most sources stay this even so not probably but they were.

Today their descendants live all over South Asia but they look like your average South Asian. I think a few users on PDF even claim to be Mughals.

Calling them purely Turkic is denying a lot of history just for the sake of nationalism.

By that logic Ottomans were more Georgian/Caucasian/Slavic than Turks because they mostly intermarried non-Turks, ruled an Arab system, used Arab titles, spoke Ottoman Language which was much more Arabic than Turkic etc. One could make a similar case but obviously it would be dismissed because of the earliest origins of the Ottomans. Similarly ruling families always married other dynasts and foreigners. Yet we always look at their paternal origins to defy their origin. The origin of Ottomans are clear. They are Turkic peoples from Turkmenistan belonging to the Oghuz tribe/clan/larger family call it what you want.

My family (Makkawi Hashemites) have intermarried with foreigners too but we will always remain an Hijazi/Arabian/Semite clan.

Got my point here or not?

PS: It's never about what you consider yourself. The Savoy family (Italian royal family) consider themselves Italian nowadays but are undoubtedly of French origin originally. Similarly the Spanish Royal Family consider themselves Spanish but they belong to the French Bourbon dynasty. The Danish royal family consider themselves Danish but are Germans originally. Similarly with the British royal family that is German originally. Not British or English as many falsely believe.

The Russian Tsars were basically Germans ruling Russia too despite being called Romanov and being Russian first and foremost. They spoke German among each other. etc. etc.

All what I have written here about those royal families and their origins is correct. You can research this on your own.

The King of Morocco considers himself an Moroccan but his lineage is from Hijaz. I was speaking about their paternal origins not what they called themselves nor did I say anything about them NOT intermarrying with Turks, becoming Turkified etc. You were just angry because somebody challenged your initial claim so you were more busy insulting and not reading what I actually wrote.


Turko-Mongol (or Turkic-Mongol) can be a modern designation for various nomads who were subject to the Mongol Empire. Being progressively Turkified (see Turkic peoples) in terms of language and identity following the Mongol conquests, they derived their ethnic and cultural origins from steppes of Central Asia. Among the most important Turco-Mongol kingdoms were the Chagatai Khanate and Golden Horde. The term is sometimes also used to describe successor Khanates and principalities, such as the Khanate of Kazan, theNogai Khanate, the Crimean Khanate, the Empire of Timur and the Turco-Persian Mughal dynasty, who was of Turco-Mongol origin.

So all these dynasties and their rulers were Turkic as all of them were Turkicized and spoke a Turkic language as mother tongue. Every ethnicity is mixed but our national and ethnical identity comes from our mother tongue. It doesn't help if you call them Turco-Mongol as the result is that all of them were Turkic in the end
 
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