I had not seen this bit before. I guess he has stated now that one of your pilot has died ...I agree no evidence is shown - yet - but how does that make that alleged dead pilot a Pakistani now? If we found out he is a Pakistani why state him as Indian now? This is flawed logic.
For example: Recently PA claimed killing 7 IA soldiers, now since no evidence was shown by PA then applying your logic would mean those 7 soldiers must be Pakistani? Do you see the flaw in your thinking now?
Here are the facts which indisputable.
1. 2 aircrafts were shot down that day. one was mig 21 and other unclear .
2. 2 pilots were in Pakistani custody in the beginning - one was W/C Abhinandan and other unknown. The story was changed one Indian pilot was with Pakistan.
3. W.C Abhinandan was returned to India and second pilot died in Pakistani hospital.
4. If the second pilot who died was an Indian - Pakistan could have easily shown id card or uniform or any other identity to conclusively proven, that they shot down 2 Indian aircrafts(instead of asking IAF to come clear) and also that they did not loose any aircraft that day.
4. Since Pakistan is not willing to that(despite being challenged by Indian again and again), it is more than logical assumption, that second pilot was not Indian to begin with.
And that is why the story was changed in few hours from 2 pilots to 1 pilot.