how much of Urdu is Sanskrit based and persian based?

[RazPaK]

I don't know how to say it, I learned sanskrit in India from grade 5 till 12 (barely passed the exams borderline pass) it was either Sanskrit or Marathi. I still don't understand if people talk in Sanskrit (which no one I know does). But I have talked to a lot of Pakistani friends and I can easily understand what they are saying. I don't know how or why its just that Urdu is easier to understand for Indian since Hindi sounds similar to Urdu.

As for Moon in Hindi, the word i learned in school was Chand so no idea what to say.

To be honest man, I have no idea what the hell Indians are saying when they speak Hindi.

Look at this clip from this Pakistan drama:

I have no idea wtf either of them are saying. I understand maybe 10-20 percent.

Chand.......

Chand is a Persian word.

 

[abvgroup]

well technically speaking, sanskrit is also a pakistani language because it was founded in what is the northern Indus area, even the Rig vedas were written in that region

 

[jandk]

sanskrit >>> persian. that is all

 

[RazPaK]

sanskrit >>> persian. that is all

Sanskrit and Avestan are sister languages.

 

[jandk]

Persian is mixed with arabic after arab conquest of iran

 

[RajputWarrior]

Chand is a Persian word.

Chand goes back it's Sanskrit origin "Chandra," it does probably however share a commonality with Avestan. Just like the suffix "stan" which is Persian for "place of" but ultimately has it's origins in Sanskrit "sthana" meaning "place."

 

[Kambojaric]

^^ Urdu is not based on Sanskrit, it does have words from it... but we have free choice to use others as well.

What i failed to understand, why does British promoted Urdu against farsi.

Sanskrit and Avestan are the two major ancient tounges of Pakistan. Sanskrit dominated North India and East Pakistan, hence Punjabi, Urdu, Kashmiri, Hindi, Gujarati all have their roots in Sanskrit. NOTE "roots". Languages evolve and become different from each other, hence the inability of a Urdu speaker to understand Gujarati, Marathi and "pure" hindi.
Avestan was also a major language of Pakistan, its modern descendent being Pashto.

Regarding the promotion of Urdu over Farsi, it is quite simple really. By banning/discouraging Farsi, the British essentially secured the fact that the people of the Pakistan region looked towards India for education, trade, inspiration and so forth. Knowing Farsi would have meant that the people of the Pakistan region would be able to maintin close relations with the erstwhile independent nations of Afghanistan and Persia. This might instill within the people in the Pakistan region a desire for their own independent nation, hence the best way to avoid this was to "Indianize" the people in this region. What better way than to cut of the linguistic links of the people of this region with thier western neighbours and join them with their eastern neighbours.

 

[jandk]

^^ Urdu is not based on Sanskrit, it does have words from it... but we have free choice to use others as well.

What i failed to understand, why does British promoted Urdu against farsi.

because farsi was never spoken in pakistan area historically

 

[punit]

basic structure of hindi and sanskrit is khari boli dialect which again is great grand daughter of sanskrit.(sanskrit--> prakrit-->apbhrans--> (khari boli, braj bhasa,awadhi,maithili.)--> hindi,urdu.

basic structure of hindi and sanskrit is khari boli dialect which again is great grand daughter of sanskrit.(sanskrit--> prakrit-->apbhrans--> (khari boli, braj bhasa,awadhi,maithili.)--> hindi,urdu.

 

[Rig Vedic]

Wrong question to ask.

How much Persian Urdu has depends upon the speaker. The Mughal royals spoke Persian, their courtiers spoke heavily Persianized Urdu, and the common Muslim spoke what would today be called Hindi.

However, as far as verbs are concerned, 100% of Urdu verbs are Sanskrit based. Apparently it is very hard to incorporate imported verbs into a language.

 

[Bang Galore]

well technically speaking, sanskrit is also a pakistani language because it was founded in what is the northern Indus area, even the Rig vedas were written in that region

Only if you can find that the Sarasvati flowed there.

 

[jandk]

Only if you can find that the Sarasvati flowed there.

yes, saraswat brahmins are pure aryans. they migrated to north india when saraswati river dried up. no doubt

 

[Rig Vedic]

Sanskrit and Avestan are the two major ancient tounges of Pakistan. Sanskrit dominated North India and East Pakistan, hence Punjabi, Urdu, Kashmiri, Hindi, Gujarati all have their roots in Sanskrit. NOTE "roots". Languages evolve and become different from each other, hence the inability of a Urdu speaker to understand Gujarati, Marathi and "pure" hindi.
Avestan was also a major language of Pakistan, its modern descendent being Pashto.

Several points. All languages across Northern India from Sindhi and Punjabi in the west to Assamese in the East, including Nepali and Marathi, are based on Sanskrit. Southern languages are not based on Sanskrit but have a large number of Sanskrit loan words.

But Pashto and Kashmiri are not based on Sanskrit, in particular, Pashto is not a descendant of Avestan.

Regarding the promotion of Urdu over Farsi, it is quite simple really. By banning/discouraging Farsi, the British essentially secured the fact that the people of the Pakistan region looked towards India for education, trade, inspiration and so forth. Knowing Farsi would have meant that the people of the Pakistan region would be able to maintin close relations with the erstwhile independent nations of Afghanistan and Persia. This might instill within the people in the Pakistan region a desire for their own independent nation, hence the best way to avoid this was to "Indianize" the people in this region. What better way than to cut of the linguistic links of the people of this region with thier western neighbours and join them with their eastern neighbours.

See, the native people of area known as Pakistan spoke the Sanskrit based languages Punjabi and Sindhi. It was easily possible for them to learn Urdu (which is Khadi Boli with loan words), but would have been harder to learn Persian, which is a foreign language for the natives.

 

[Rig Vedic]

The geographical areas mentioned in the Vedic literature -

 

[Bang Galore]

yes, saraswat brahmins are pure aryans. they migrated to north india when saraswati river dried up. no doubt

Sarasvati's location is given as being between the Yamuna & the Sutlej, now mostly accepted as the Ghaggar-Hakra system. I believe Haryana would already qualify as North India .