Sky lord
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The history of communal riots in independent India has been studied to death. Except for the most palpably biased communalists, it has been universally concluded by the variously affiliated students of this phenomenon that these have been majority provoked, and that the riots were used increasingly to dominate the minority community of Muslims into cowed submission. Exactly what was done in Gujarat in 2002.
To clarify, are your esteemed colleagues saying that ALL riots in India gave been provoked by Hindus in order to dominate Muslims?