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Vedas was given to Hindus by aliens and translated into sanskrit. The people wrote it to fool general population. :(

It was Annunakis who gave the Vedas to Hindus, but the Plebians and the Reptilians distorted the meaning so that after reading them people give out a negative energy that actually strengthens them physicaly - the Greater Greys who are preparing for a final showdown with the Annunakis trbe. ::agree:
 
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Huh? Sorry I did not mean it that way, my point was those who wrote the vedas... ACCORDING to previous posts were ALSO from foreigners!

Hmmm..no they weren't. That is the prevailing theory now.

If the composers were really foreigners why isnt there a single reference to any other land except the subcontinent in an otherwise very detailed scripture ?
 
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Hmmm..no they weren't. That is the prevailing theory now.

If the composers were really foreigners why isnt there a single reference to any other land except the subcontinent in an otherwise very detailed scripture ?

I meant that they came from somewhere else (Indo-European) But there is doubt as of yet that it was written in India...I am talking about the origins of the people not the origins of the Vedas!
 
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The first veda was most probably writen outside India, in central asia, around tajikistan. (by India I mean Indian/pakistan/bangladesh/afganistan). Saw a BBC documentary the other day about India. Will post a link, if I find it.
 
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Please find some confusing responses from me interspersed with your points.

Aryans as according to most historians were people who moved from a different place and settled in India with the Indians...

Indo-Aryan migration - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

This is dated stuff. First, we are talking about the migration, or whatever it was, of The People Who Spoke Indo-Aryan, not of the Indo-Aryans. This is important. TPWSIA were steppe-dwellers, in the version of the proto-history that you read in that Wikipedia article. Steppe-dwellers tend to be an ethnically diversified collection of people; it is misleading to assume that they were homogeneous in type.

Please also remember this passage:

In 19th century Indo-European studies, the language of the Rigveda was the most archaic Indo-European language known to scholars, indeed the only records of Indo-European that could reasonably claim to date to the Bronze Age. This "primacy" of Sanskrit inspired some scholars, such as Friedrich Schlegel, to assume that the locus of the Proto-Indo-European Urheimat (primary homeland) had been in India, with the other dialects spread to the west by historical migration. This was however never a mainstream position even in the 19th century. Most scholars assumed a homeland either in Europe or in Western Asia, and Sanskrit must in this case have reached India by a language transfer from west to east, in a movement described in terms of invasion by 19th century scholars such as Max Müller. With the 20th century discovery of Bronze-Age attestations of Indo-European (Anatolian, Mycenaean Greek), Vedic Sanskrit lost its special status as the most archaic Indo-European language known.

What that means is that there is no longer any linguistic compulsion to think of a movement east to west, out of India.

There are other compulsions.

There appears to be a lot of resentment of Europeans and their version of Indian history, at two levels, one at the Indian collective level, another at the south Indian collective level. This resentment found expression in an attempt to create an alternative narrative of history, one in which all the teachings of the sahib are discarded, and a fresh start made.




Hmmm....


The Impact of the Aryans and Vedas on the Religions of India

According to this...Origin of Hinduism can be linked to Egypt!



Aryans as according to most historians were people who moved from a different place and settled in India with the Indians...

Indo-Aryan migration - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Hmmm....


The Impact of the Aryans and Vedas on the Religions of India

According to this...Origin of Hinduism can be linked to Egypt!

In fact the article puts Rajputs as foreigners too:



The Impact of the Aryans and Vedas on the Religions of India
 
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I meant that they came from somewhere else (Indo-European) But there is doubt as of yet that it was written in India...I am talking about the origins of the people not the origins of the Vedas!

Again that begs the question why the people who came from 'outside' never even mentioned once about their homelands (remember that knowledge was passed mostly through oral tradition in their culture and hence it is inconceivable that those who composed the Vedas have never even heard about their ancestral lands) or the great migration/invasion/whatever to the Indian subcontinent !
 
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The first veda was most probably writen outside India, in central asia, around tajikistan. (by India I mean Indian/pakistan/bangladesh/afganistan). Saw a BBC documentary the other day about India. Will post a link, if I find it.

That would be the Rg veda and that theory of it being composed outside India is not based on proof since the Rg veda quite clearly mentions the geography of the land and the land is quite clearly the sub continent.
 
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Again that begs the question why the people who came from 'outside' never even mentioned once about their homelands (remember that knowledge was passed mostly through oral tradition in their culture and hence it is inconceivable that those who composed the Vedas have never even heard about their ancestral lands) or the great migration/invasion/whatever to the Indian subcontinent !

That is such a mystery. I'm not inclined to dismiss the argument that there was some sort of a migration because the linguistic proof does suggest a connection that simply cannot be explained any other way. It either flowed into India or out of India and the linguistic evidence does seem to suggest the former. However the argument that the Aryans arrived into India & immediately started composing an amazing composition which they then passed down orally with extraordinary accuracy for at least a 1000 years but somehow chose to remember nothing of their immediate past is extremely puzzling to say the least. Surely a great migration would have been something worthwhile to remember. Also extraordinary that the "parent body" of such a group, presumably still living in Southern Russia or slowly moving out seem (on evidence) to be unable to perform a similar feat (of composing something similar to the Rg veda). Maybe they have and it's all been lost, maybe for some reasons the Indian Aryans refused to remember anything about the past but decided that they would remember everything in India but it quite simply remains the most puzzling piece in the theory of a great (or not a great) migration.
 
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There are other compulsions.

There appears to be a lot of resentment of Europeans and their version of Indian history, at two levels, one at the Indian collective level, another at the south Indian collective level. This resentment found expression in an attempt to create an alternative narrative of history, one in which all the teachings of the sahib are discarded, and a fresh start made.

Probably but not necessarily the only reason to revisit earlier readings. The genetic studies have created a problem for the proponents of the AIT unlike anything before. One can argue about Sarasvati, about Ushas & whether the long references to it indicate an earlier location, about tigers & rice and if nothing else, can always call any & all opponents Khaki knickerwallas but arguing against science is not as easy. I find it extraordinary that the science as now known does not seem to give pause & maybe call for a moment of introspection from the proponents of the AITseeing as we now know that there is a problem. If linguistics & genetics are in opposition, one can only side with genetics since language is transferable. Yet we have an almost angry response (present company excepted for the most part :)) whenever this theory & the version of history (or pre-history) is questioned even slightly.

Btw, South Indians resenting European version of history? A bit strange that since for the most part S.Indians (especially Tamil) like to propagate the Dravidian theory put forward by the Europeans. Would appreciate any clarification.
 
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I meant that they came from somewhere else (Indo-European) But there is doubt as of yet that it was written in India...I am talking about the origins of the people not the origins of the Vedas!

According to vedic unit of time

6 Months = 1 Ayana
2 Ayana = 1 day (1 day and 1 night) of Gods :woot:
 
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