Bang Galore
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This may help
AJHG - Shared and Unique Components of Human Population Structure and Genome-Wide Signals of Positive Selection in South Asia
ScienceDirect.com - The American Journal of Human Genetics - Shared and Unique Components of Human Population Structure and Genome-Wide Signals of Positive Selection in South Asia
I'm doing no such thing, religious scriptures are the only early proof of an "Aryan" presence and there is very little archaeological proof available. The only proof offered for a "migration" is linguistic, not archaeological.
Anything is possible but the dates for that migration out of Africa is considerably at a much earlier date than the available evidence for a proto Indo-European people.
How do you figure that? I hold no brief for any of the dates, just that these are the dates offered by those who studied this.
When the date of 1000 BCE was given as the timeline for painted grey ware sites on the bed of the river, it was only to suggest that regardless of when the river actually dried out as per different theories, we can be certain that it was a dead river by 1000 BCE. This is important because the Rg veda is dated by those who believe in the AIT at about 1500 BCE onwards. Since the Rg veda (composed over generations) mentions a river in fuller flow & the much later Mahabharata refers to it as being in the process of drying out, the dating may be brought to question.
Sorry I am lost in the 1st para itself
King kills boy accidently...King is cursed and his son dies...then who is this "son"??
The first refers to the Epic "Ramayana" & the second to the " Mahabharata", both excellent reads regardless of religious orientation.
Oh don't worry about that I ask ALOT of questions...Usually get told off but still have the habit
My question:
How old is the vedas? Because you are talking about Buddha in here....and as previous posters wrote that it talks mostly about India, was Hinduism for India only? I mean I think throughout the thread (sorry I MIGHT be combining a few theories with the vedas...been reading some posts)..
Was the vedas brought to the IVC people or did they inherit it? I mean how did it come to being the book? Was there messenger? How long did it take for the book to reveal? Because it states alot of stuff and about the flood and does it talk about Buddhism? If it does wouldn't it suggest it came AFTER Buddhism otherwise how can a religion which is older than Buddhism talk about Buddha?
The vedas are the oldest known Aryan compositions but as my comments earlier indicate, difficult to get everyone to agree on dates. However, everyone agrees it was 1500 BCE or before (for the Rg veda), something that would predate the Buddha by about 1000 years at the very least. It was not written down, passed on orally from one generation to another for well over a millennium & was composed by Rishis, some from families (the family mandalas) & others by individual rishis.
There are four vedas, the Rg veda being the oldest & most prominent. They make no mention of Buddha but since Hinduism always evolved continually, later religious texts did make reference to the Buddha.
