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To whom does the term 'Aryan' belong?

Well...there are all the same language family & hence the direct connection. Btw, the Germans didn't think that Indians were necessarily of the same race, they thought that the Aryan race was very diluted in India by mixing. It was racism that necessitated (among other things, including more language research) the moving of the "Urheimat" towards Europe

:) arent they right?

by the way your Indians are saying Aryans is not a race to begin but just related to language ;)
 
So to begin with there are NO Aryans in India be North or South

Haven't you figured it out already ? The whole concept of Aryans as a race has been debunked. It is a myth.

Now there is just a language family called the Indo-Aryan languages.

For the map of the areas where these languages are used , use google. For a moment try to forget all the crap you were taught in school in Pakistan.
 
Haven't you figured it out already ? The whole concept of Aryans as a race has been debunked. It is a myth.

Now there is just a language family called the Indo-Aryan languages.

For the map of the areas where these languages are used , use google. For a moment try to forget all the crap you were taught in school in Pakistan.

we were not taught any crap about Hindus as Aryan ;) NOT even Rigveda says that Hindus were Aryan.
 
:) arent they right?

by the way your Indians are saying Aryans is not a race to begin but just related to language ;)

Studies have proven that there is no Aryan-Dravidian divide, that means whatever race they are is the same one irrespective of what languages they speak. That study also suggests no major mixing/change in the overall population for the last 40000 years. The word Aryan as used now refers to the language family only. Though people who chose to could probably use it if they resided in what was called "Aryavarta"(abode of the Aryans) & "Aryanam/Airyanem"(land of the Aryans), the first referring to a large part of N.India & the second referring to Iran.
 
Studies have proven that there is no Aryan-Dravidian divide, that means whatever race they are is the same one irrespective of what languages they speak. That study also suggests no major mixing/change in the overall population for the last 40000 years. The word Aryan as used now refers to the language family only. Though people who chose to could probably use it if they resided in what was called "Aryavarta"(abode of the Aryans) & "Aryanam/Airyanem"(land of the Aryans), the first referring to a large part of N.India & the second referring to Iran.

:) So whatever rigveda mentioned is all lies?
 
Err.....so what does the Rg veda mention?? (mild warning: you are on my favourite topic):)

:D ok with the warning.

But tell me are HINDUS Aryan?

if there was NO divide then why Vedic Aryans culture and religion was different than Dravidians
 
:D ok with the warning.

But tell me are HINDUS Aryan?

if there was NO divide then why Vedic Aryans culture and religion was different than Dravidians

Different? How so? The word Aryan has grown to encompass a much wider region. As I have said earlier, in the Rg veda it is used almost only for the Bharatas, a sub-tribe of the Purus who themselves were only one of the 5 "lunar dynasty" tribes who form the people of the book. "Hindus" lived in Aryavarta, does that qualify for them to be called Aryans? Depends.
 
I always thought that the aryan race originated in central asia. Maybe im wrong. However, I dont think it refers to Nordic. (does it?).

Well according to our mithology our ancestors come to Iran plateu from a territory north of caspian sea about 3500 year ago . Today scientific society also support that aryans were people who lived in southern part of syberia and north of casoian see àbout 3500 to 5000 year ago and then become 5 group and migrated to central Europe Iran plateu and india and pakistan area . In recent years there are some new theory that originated mostly in south Asia . These theories claim that Arians originated in northern India then migrated to North of caspian sea and after that again migrated to india , Iran and Europe and ..

Honestly I don't know which is correct but both groups claim that they have evidece that support they claims. But something is sure Aryans were nomadic people that their success was due to their success in taming horses and in asia when they migrated to the southern parts they dominated the more culturally advance civilization of thhose areas in military scrimish but when it come to culture they merged with the original inhabitants of thise lands . In Europe there simply was ni culture more advance and they remain nomadic until when they conquered west rome and then they metged with roman culture
 
Well according to our mithology our ancestors come to Iran plateu from a territory north of caspian sea about 3500 year ago . Today scientific society also support that aryans were people who lived in southern part of syberia and north of casoian see àbout 3500 to 5000 year ago and then become 5 group and migrated to central Europe Iran plateu and india and pakistan area . In recent years there are some new theory that originated mostly in south Asia . These theories claim that Arians originated in northern India then migrated to North of caspian sea and after that again migrated to india , Iran and Europe and ..

Honestly I don't know which is correct but both groups claim that they have evidece that support they claims. But something is sure Aryans were nomadic people that their success was due to their success in taming horses and in asia when they migrated to the southern parts they dominated the more culturally advance civilization of thhose areas in military scrimish but when it come to culture they merged with the original inhabitants of thise lands . In Europe there simply was ni culture more advance and they remain nomadic until when they conquered west rome and then they metged with roman culture

The new theories are floated by Indians mostly.

And the trait which you had mentioned (the bold part in your comment), is one of the evidences that they migrated to this part , since the locals or dravidians for that matter only used elephants not horses

Different? How so? The word Aryan has grown to encompass a much wider region. As I have said earlier, in the Rg veda it is used almost only for the Bharatas, a sub-tribe of the Purus who themselves were only one of the 5 "lunar dynasty" tribes who form the people of the book. "Hindus" lived in Aryavarta, does that qualify for them to be called Aryans? Depends.

Different in a sense that Rigvedic Aryans worshipped different gods different than hindu or dravidian gods, eat beaf and sacrifice cow.
 
The new theories are floated by Indians mostly.

And the trait which you had mentioned (the bold part in your comment), is one of the evidences that they migrated to this part , since the locals or dravidians for that matter only used elephants not horses

Genetic studies are not floated by Indians. Ask Harvard if you want. What about horses? What does that prove? Proves nothing. This is a pointless argument where you end up cherry picking those points that one thinks helps their case.



Different in a sense that Rigvedic Aryans worshipped different gods different than hindu or dravidian gods, eat beaf and sacrifice cow.

Means nothing. Hinduism is not a fixed religion like some others. It evolved. However the key is that it discarded none of the Gods, just added more.
 
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