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The delusion of identity

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Yes it has nothing to do with this

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All the major sites are in modern Pakistan, Indians got a few ancient mud huts here and there and so they named their whole country after a river that runs the length of a foreign nation. :rolleyes::lol:

@waz @DESERT FIGHTER @Armstrong @Chinese-Dragon @Airboss786

Not that I blame yall I mean just look at your "holy" ganga full of corpses and every other filth known to man. Nobody wants to name anything after that. :rofl:
Have some respect, we can easily say stuff back but we actually respect Islam. Shame it isn't mutual.
 
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That's just such a dishonest argument. You are completely ignoring the FACT that some Pakistanis trumpet the IVC, the same IVC that ceased to exist some 3500 years ago, ONLY because its accidentally largely situated in today's Pakistan.

The whole IVC argument only bolsters the case that Pakistanis desperately try to be ''not indian'' and hence cling to 3500 yr old IVC as a fake claim that they acknowledge their ''roots'' ignoring the next 3500 years selectively. Dishonesty has to have a limit, and you being taken in by such intellectual jugglery is surprising.

I already explained between 1500BC-500BC Pakistan was in Vedic period. Its only around 2500 when Aryans entered India from Pakistan in mass and went to all over South Asia. Our connection with rest of South Asia culture is only 2500 years old through Aryans. IVC was distinctive civilization and so was Vedic till 500BC.

Brahmins were killed en mass when invasions first happened. Documented by the Muslim historians, mountains were made of Brahmin heads. This repeated all through North India. A society where its intellectual capital is decimated and there are no protectors left, is not the same society as before. Zamindari system was brought in. Land grants given on basis of service rendered to the Muslim noblemen became the norm. Men were being turned into eunuchs in thousands. Survival in such a threatened environment makes a system rigid.

What CEB does it try to bring its Christian biases and tries to look at Hinduism from a Christian lens without having a clue as to the essence of Hinduism.

Sindh and Punjab was free of so called Brahmins suppresion of local population. Because i doubt they were ever in position to do anything in Punjab. Unlike in rest of South Asia there is no genetic differences between brahmins and local population on those 2 regions. Brahmins from NW Subcontinent who went all over India have kept marrying with each other mostly. And now we can see difference between south indian brahmin and local or bihari brahmin and local.

I doubt you are Dalit, never seen any low caste in love of Brahmins.
 
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There is lots of prestige associated for being a Rajput, so it seems Muslim Rajputs couldn't give up their Hindu identity. I never heard people with Butt surname calling themselves as Muslim Brahmins. :lol::lol: Rajput and Jatts also keep clan names(gotra) as their surnames, they were preserved too after leaving Hinduism.
Muslims can be considered Rajput mate,
 
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Learn to argue based on facts, not reinventing history. Chinese had moved south since Qin and Han dynasty 2200 years ago.
And as late as Qing dynasty. The non-sinitic tribe of ancient time are today's minority group known as Zhuang or Tai people...etc. There were inter-marriage, but majority were Han Chinese. This is proven by DNA. What do you mean sharing the same DNA is other thing? That is the most criterial thing!!!!!

ANI and ASI are genetically different people. And Aryan are genetically different from ANI and ASI.
I have not included, Scythian, greek, Tocharian, Persian and Turks into the mix yet. There is simply no basis for comparison with the homogenous Chinese. You civilization came from foreign invaders.

I know you are butthurt, but no matter how you lie and smear, you cannot change historical facts.

Another recent genetic study. Proves that ANI-ASI admixture in Pakistan population is about 2100-2200 years old. Same is the case in brahmins of India. It perfectly proves that brahmins went to all over South Asia around 500BC.

There was also another ANI wave in India, 4200 years old in some cases. But it had nothing to do with aryans.
 
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Another recent genetic study. Proves that ANI-ASI admixture in Pakistan population is about 2100-2200 years old. Same is the case in brahmins of India. It perfectly proves that brahmins went to all over South Asia around 500BC.

There was also another ANI wave in India, 4200 years old in some cases. But it had nothing to do with aryans.
What information do you have on Rajputs?
 
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What information do you have on Rajputs?

Punjabi Rajputs unlike jatts were part of Hindu caste system. Rajputs tribes which you find in Pakistan like Ghakkars, Janjua etc fought Turkic invaders and lost.
 
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Punjabi Rajputs unlike jatts were part of Hindu caste system. Rajputs tribes which you find in Pakistan like Ghakkars, Janjua etc fought Turkic invaders and lost.
I read somewhere that there is barely any difference genetically between Punjabi Rajputs and North West Indian Rajputs.
 
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Who cares about all this genealogy, end of the day we're brown to the white man. And to the Indians who are kicking up a fuss about this, you really seem to care about where the Pakistanis originate from, is this a thread to reassure yourself that they are the 'same' as you? You seem to love your Pakistanis a lot but certainly show it in an odd way!
 
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I read somewhere that there is barely any difference genetically between Punjabi Rajputs and North West Indian Rajputs.
No idea, never heard of any genetic study of punjabi rajputs and rajasthan rajputs.
 
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Who cares about all this genealogy, end of the day we're brown to the white man. And to the Indians who are kicking up a fuss about this, you really seem to care about where the Pakistanis originate from, is this a thread to reassure yourself that they are the 'same' as you? You seem to love your Pakistanis a lot but certainly show it in an odd way!
Not really, it more to counter the claim that Indus civilisation had nothing to do with India.
 
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Your inherent bias had blinded your reading and comprehension skills :woot: It was the Hindu group that said AIT was controversial, not the board. In fact, board disapproved it. Hence, "Aryans invaders" remained unchanged.

Rejected edits and corrections

Original textbook draft: “Around 1500 B.C.E., invaders called Aryans conquered northern India.

(Hindu group) Ad hoc committee action: Publisher is directed to add a clarifying note that the “Aryan invasion theory” has been contradicted by scholarly evidence.

(This is the from the board)
Final SBE/CDE recommendation
Prof Bajpai and Prof. Witzel

Change to, “In the second millennium B.C.E., invaders called Aryans came to northern India.”

California textbook controversy over Hindu history - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Oops! My bad... Messed up in reading the column titles. You are right.
 
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Now this is called revisionism which you are famous for.
gigglesmile.gif
The Scythians, Greek, Tocharians, Persians and Turks were very small group who got assimilated in local Indian population adopting the Indian languages and nobody know who are their descendants unlike the non-Han majority of Southern China had to gave up their original culture and assimilated as Han Chinese by Northern Hans.


Reinvention of history is what you are famous for, everyone see the lack of substance in your posts.

1) First, you denied Vedic Aryans are foreigner, but your lie was exposed. I quoted your older post.

2) You are butt hurt, so you invented southern chinese are not Han chinese crap. But Han Chinese, genetically and culturally, are the same, regardless they move south, north, east or west. They can move anywhere in China.

3) Now, you're making another lie, Turks-Mongols didn't adopt, they imposed persian culture on you. Thus, creating much of modern Indian culture. Eg. Hindi came from Mughals.

You have picked the wrong topic to troll Chinese, we are the most homogenous people, genetically and culturally.

If you're still butt hurt that vedic civilization came from Aryans, seek help from a psychiatrist. Your lie can't change history.
 
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3) Now, you're making another lie, Turks-Mongols aka, Mughal, didn't adopt your culture, they imposed persian culture on you. Thus, creating much of modern Indian culture. Eg. Hindi came from Mughals.

From what I know Hindi is derived from Sanskrit. Can you explain how Hindi came from Mughals? It was Urdu that came from Mughals, mix of written Farsi or something with local languages. Hindi is development of Khadi boli from North India.

Hindustani language - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Early forms of present day Hindustani emerged from the Middle Indo-Aryan apabhramsha vernaculars of North India in the 7th–13th centuries CE.[15] Amir Khusro, who lived in the 13th century CE during the Delhi Sultanate period in North India, used these forms (which was the lingua franca of the period) in his writings and referred to the language as Hindavi.[15] The Delhi Sultanate, which comprised several Turkic and Persian dynasties that ruled from Delhi, was succeeded by the Mughal Empire in 1526.

Although the Mughals were of Timurid (Gurkānī) Turko-Mongol descent,[16] they were Persianized, and Persian had gradually become the state language of the Mughal empire after Babur.[17][18][19][20]

Towards the end of the Mughal period, with the fragmentation of the empire and the elite system, a variant of Khariboli, one of the successors of apabhramsha vernaculars at Delhi, and nearby cities, came to gradually replace Persian as the lingua franca among the educated elite upper class particularly in northern India, though Persian still retained much of its pre-eminence. The term Hindustani (literally "of Hindustan") was the name given to that variant of Khariboli.

For socio-political reasons, though essentially the variant of Khariboli with Persian vocabulary, the emerging prestige dialect became also known as Urdu (properly zabān-e Urdu-e mo'alla "language of the court" or zabān-e Urdu زبان اردو‎, ज़बान-ए उर्दू, "language of the camp" in Persian, derived from Turkic Ordū "camp", cognate with English horde; due to its origin as the common speech of the Mughal army). The more highly Persianized version later established as a language of the court was called Rekhta, or "mixed".

It did absorbed a lot of words from other languages, but that happens in a multicultural environment.
 
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From what I know Hindi is derived from Sanskrit. Can you explain how Hindi came from Mughals? It was Urdu that came from Mughals, mix of written Farsi or something with local languages. Hindi is development of Khadi boli from North India.

Hindustani language - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

It did absorbed a lot of words from other languages, but that happens in a multicultural environment.


You said it yourself, many vocabulary were borrowed. Most importantly, they remain mutually intelligible. Clear evidence of Turk-Mongol Persian influence. Sanskrit has long been dead, even pali was dead.

if you go thru carefully, from the link you posted.
Although the Mughals were of Timurid (Gurkānī) Turko-Mongol descent,[16] they were Persianized, and Persian had gradually become the state language of the Mughal empire after Babur.[17][18][19][20]

Towards the end of the Mughal period, with the fragmentation of the empire and the elite system, a variant of Khariboli, one of the successors of apabhramsha vernaculars at Delhi, and nearby cities, came to gradually replace Persian as the lingua franca among the educated elite upper classparticularly in northern India, though Persian still retained much of its pre-eminence. The termHindustani (literally "of Hindustan") was the name given to that variant of Khariboli.

For socio-political reasons, though essentially the variant of Khariboli with Persian vocabulary, the emerging prestige dialect became also known as Urdu (properly zabān-e Urdu-e mo'alla "language of the court" or zabān-e Urdu زبان اردو‎, ज़बान-ए उर्दू, "language of the camp" in Persian, derived from TurkicOrdū "camp", cognate with English horde; due to its origin as the common speech of the Mughal army). The more highly Persianized version later established as a language of the court was calledRekhta, or "mixed".
 
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Reinvention of history is what you are famous for, just go back and read your posts in this thread

1) First, you denied Vedic Aryans are foreigner, but your lie was exposed. I quoted your older post.

2) You are butt hurt, so you invented southern chinese are not Han chinese crap. But Han Chinese, genetically and culturally, are the same, regardless they move south, north, east or west. They can move anywhere in China.

3) Now, you're making another lie, Turks-Mongols imposed persian culture on you. Thus, creating much of modern Indian culture. Eg. Hindi came from Mughals.

You have picked the wrong topic to troll Chinese, we are the most homogenous people, genetically and culturally.

If you're still butt hurt that vedic civilization came from Aryans, seek help from a psychiatrist. Your lie can't change history.

Will you please stop faking,

1. I said there is no proof of invasion, I never said anything about foreigners.

2. I only state Southern Han majority Southern China only came a 1000 years back, I stated only the facts.

3. Hindi came from our indigenous Khariboli dialect(a dialect of Western Hindi) which originated from Shauraseni Prakrit. Those Turco-Mongol adopted the Hindustani vernacular also based on Khariboli dialect as lingua franca and no nobody speak Persian in India. BTW how do you know how much Persian words is used in Hindi. :omghaha::omghaha:

Your own history is based people being forcefully sinticized and you are trying to insult us by referring to so called Aryan invasion theory. Have some shame yokel. :girl_wacko::girl_wacko:
 
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