Dude, since when dividends are counted together with cost of machinery or other operational and overhead costs? Lol.
Dividend is paid out as part of EBITDA, that means operational And overhead costs are already excluded beforehand (hint: E stands for Earning = Revenue - COGS). Furthermore, Dividend sharing is based on ownership of share at the end of the day. Suppose you have 10 as revenue, costs count as 5, then you need to pay out your obligation with all the interests to lenders 2, lets say TDA cost another 1. You are left with 2. Lets say you decide to use 1 to pay out dividends, the 1 will be divided according to the ownership share. So PT Inalum will get 0.51 and the rest goes to other shareholders. These are shareholder profit. The remaining 1 will be company‘s profit.
You see, why would shareholder profit sharing be any different? The whole idea of ownership of a company is to have a clear shareholder profit sharing mechanism once a company makes money.
Dividends are paid (usually) paid out of profits. Profits come after all the expenses have been paid, like Machinery, salaries to all the executives, workers.
most mining companies sell anything they dig up to their subsidiary based in Singapore at a loss. So there are no profits as they sell at a loss. The Singapore subsidiary sells it at a profit. There is no tax in Singapore. So the Singapore subsidiary makes all the money. I would imagine the Indonesians own 51% of the company that makes all the loss. I don't imagine they are given 51% of the Singapore company. Thats for the westerners.
that's called "transfer pricing". Some Indonesians get huge money for allowing this to happen. They keep their money on western banks. All is good as long they allow this to happen and keep most money in western banks. Once they want all their money, there is a corruption allegation and money is frozen for 20 years until there is an investigation.