masterchief_mirza
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Again, you ignore my dismantling of your "but but but the numbers in India are too great but but but" theory. Only a few Aryans were needed to own and enslave subcontinent females and sire multiple families. Why is this so difficult for you to comprehend? The formal journal authors have hinted at this but because of your perpetual hindutva inferiority complex, you simply deny that it was ever possible. You need look no further than modern India, where Dalit females remain an object of abuse for lighter skinned upper castes. The circumstantial evidence exists in front of you. It is no stretch of the imagination to expect that this form of enslavement occurred millennia ago.Could then it have generated such a large population drive towards India such that there could ever have been such a mass admixture with the Indian population?
Not interested in your character assassinations, as I've already said.DID A HUGE FRAUD
" Interestingly, both the ANI and ASI
ancestry components of the Indian populations are found to
harbour higher haplotypic diversity than those predominant in
west Eurasia. The shared genetic affinity between the ANI
component of northern India and west Eurasia was dated prior
to the Aryan invasion (Metspalu et al. 2011). These realities
suggest the rejection of the Aryan invasion hypothesis but
support an ancient demographic history of India."
Now this is the core of your argument from the Indian authored paper you mentioned. This statement illustrates the butthurt you and other hindutva types feel perpetually and will try to wriggle out of by any available means.
ANI was always postulated as retaining an ASI contribution, even by Reich. Read the relevant excerpts from the Metspalu paper that you and your Indian boys have simply interpreted in their own agenda-driven way:
"Through admixture between an ancestral south Indian (ASI) gene pool, this ANI variation was found to have contributed significantly to the extant makeup of not only north (50%–70%) but also south Indian populations (>40%). "
In other words, of course ANI and ASI will share this common feature of having higher haplotypic diversity simply because of the ASI contribution to ANI that everyone here already knows about. ASI shagged people to their east and north because that's what people do. That doesn't obviate the conclusions drawn elsewhere that an Aryan movement also contributed to ANI.
Ridiculous. There are two options to the origins of Sanskrit - out of India or into India. We know the IVC didn't use Sanskrit. We also know Sanskrit is related to Europe via the indo-European language family. How did it emerge from India in ancient times (I.e. well before 3000 years b.c. which is the genealogical proposal put forward by your references for the ancient genetic admixture point between Aryans and indigenous Indians), then stimulate European languages while the IVC was slap bang in the way? The only plausible explanation is that someone brought Sanskrit into India when the IVC declined.point is: your report cannot under any circumstance show that such immigrants brought in the Sanskrit language, religion and culture,
Don't put words into my mouth and falsely attribute your unrefined jingoism to me. Vedas were no such thing. They were a syncretic amalgamation of the enslaver and the enslaved world views. The Ptolemaics had already done such a thing in Egypt, adopting wholesale the rites and philosophy of the enslaved or conquered, while creating local variations of Gods and beliefs. Romans and Greeks did this. All invading groups do this. Even Hinduism has laid claim itself to Buddhism, Sikhism and allsorts within the Hindustani nexus, as a mechanism of subtle mental subterfuge. This is nothing new or peculiar. That Aryan enslavers sought to rebalance their philosophies with local ones is no dumb thing. It works well with religious tenets that are malleable and animistic. Different locations have different "variations" of a common root belief system as an adaptation, nothing more dramatic.Your kind says that "Vedas were rantings of nomadic steppe as they invaded and plundered India" , yet vedas speak of 7 rivers the oceanic universe , even all your basic terms karma , dhyana , mantra yoga , rishi prana and thar equivalent terms is already in the ancient vedic text
Essentially, your tactic is a disappointing one. You create a false projection of ridiculous and antiquated b.s. and attribute it to me without any justification other than your attempt to discredit me into the realm of fantasy. In reality, my conclusions are reasonable and valid, not in this fantastical realm you seek to attribute me to.
Never mind that, your petty insults towards me - which you can't seem to avoid - speak volumes about your motivations.
The big problem you're going to be stuck with is that every single one of your supposed sources is infiltrated by bias and self-serving agendas. I have mentioned elsewhere in this thread instances of Indian government funding for certain authors of "scholarly" work regarding all of the above issues,despite the glaringly obvious conflict of interest. Meanwhile, folks from China to the USA point fingers at out-of-India nonsense routinely, despite having ZERO vested interest in discrediting it, and instead seek scholastic truth, as opposed to your propagandised interpretations.
(PDF) The Aryan Controversy Decided? Ancient India between the Early Aryans and the Indus Civilization (Review Essay on Asko Parpola's The Roots of Hinduism)
PDF | Abstract: What are the prehistoric sources of Brahminic Hinduism and Ancient Indian Civilization? The attempts to answer this question have given... | Find, read and cite all the research you need on ResearchGate
www.researchgate.net
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Although the IVC certainly predates the RVIA migrations from Central Asia by several millennia, the IVC was already in drastic decline by the second millennia BCE, when the RVIA tribes arrived in the Punjab; and the RVIA invasion of the Indus Valley resulted in a drastic transformation of the Harappan culture, whereby Brahminic Vedic sacrificial ritualism and the Sanskrit language were imposed upon the Harappan population. But the RVIA tribes were a small elite minority among the Harappan population, and within another thousand years, the Harappan population had swamped the RVIA invaders, resulting in the reemergence of the Pre-Rig Vedic Mesopotamian and Harappan elements which make up the greater part of 'village Hinduism.' After many thousand years of conquests of the Indian subcontinent by the RVIAs, the Greeks, the Mongols, the Mughals, and the British Empire, contemporary Hinduism thus testifies to the survival of Harappan (IVC) culture in the 21st Century Republic of India (est. 1947-1950)."
Let me make one further point. Part of your inference throughout your exchange with me has been reliant on discrediting the "Aryan invasion/enslavement theory" (I agree it may have been a peaceful enslavement by the way with minimal evidence of resistance from the native bushmen of the gangetic plains. After all, if you can't beat em...etc) by ranting on about how wrong Reich is and how Aryan DNA entered Hindustan long before the proposed Steppe-lander invasion around the decline of the IVC. In this regard, it is actually you who has become overly reliant on your own anthropological citations. You have simply assumed that even if there were multiple points of historical "entry" of Aryan DNA into the north Indian pool, that this automatically negates the possibility of at least one group of Aryans deciding to enter with malicious intent, destroy the IVC and scatter its people and enslave your own masters. Your effort is pure propagandisation of interpretation of scholarly effort, and is duly noted. The stark summation of linguistic, genetic and anthropological (including the development of rigvedic brahminist beliefs) points to a very high likelihood that at least ONE GROUP of Aryan foreigners came to the subcontinent with the intention of domination culturally, linguistically, dynastically and socially. This is ample food for thought while you mill around trying to eternally prove Aryans didn't all come at a precise point in time into the fertile gangetic plains. It's very plausible, and perhaps fitting, that the Steppe land aggressors came multiple times into ma Bharat. They only needed to do it aggressively once - and the whole subcontinent was subdued.