Peshwa
SENIOR MEMBER
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- Joined
- Jun 26, 2009
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There was NO India before 47
It was amalgamation of states ruled by different persons
Christopher Columbus disagrees with you......
Columbus's initial 1492 voyage came at a critical time of emerging modern western imperialism and economic competition between developing kingdoms seeking wealth from the establishment of trade routes and colonies. In this sociopolitical climate, Columbus's far-fetched scheme won the attention of Isabella I of Castile. Severely underestimating the circumference of the Earth, he estimated that a westward route from Iberia to the Indies would be shorter than the overland trade route through Arabia. If true, this would allow Spain entry into the lucrative spice trade heretofore commanded by the Arabs and Italians. Following his plotted course, he instead landed within the Bahamas Archipelago at a locale he named San Salvador. Mistaking the lands he encountered for the East Indies, he referred to the inhabitants as "indios".[9][10] There is a linguistic urban legend that he actually named them "una gente in Dios", (a people in God), and that in 1492 India was called Hindustan, but he never used the phrase "una gente in Dios" and India had been called India for centuries and the name 'Hindustan' did not become common until some time after Columbus.[11]