Of course its interpretation. You have to interpret what freedom of speech is...and where it (speech) ends and where
expression starts.
If the case you are referring to is
Schenk vs US...you have to read presiding Justice (Holmes) comments on it thoroughly. For sake of brevity from wiki:
The First Amendment did not alter the well-established law in cases where the attempt was made through expressions that would be protected in other circumstances. In this opinion, Holmes said that expressions which in the circumstances were intended to result in a crime, and posed a "clear and present danger" of succeeding, could be punished.
Notice the word expressions? It is no longer considered only speech.
This is
extremely different from what the UK, Canada, Western Europe have been engaging in (i.e overtly limiting what is
explicitly covered by free speech in the US, that could never be touched by any US govt regarding legislation) for quite some time now simply because it is afforded to them in their faultily made, inferior (imo) constitutions (i.e no explicit statement of what a govt CANNOT do). i.e whatever the "issue" of "hateful" speech is (that carry no proven, established, self evident intent criminal result)...it can simply be voted upon legislatively (to create various anti-free speech for "greater good" statutes and precedents to be enforced upon the people). It is far more broad in scope than the US ever could do...and it is essentially open bounded (because there is not check or balance written explicitly against it....you just need enough votes)
Rest of your post, well I would have to go into lot more detail of how the first 10 amendments quite differ in nature (as have been commented on by a litany of SCOTUS judges) to any subsequent amendments. It would basically be tantamount to a revolution basically to repeal any of them. You sort of hint at it yourself.
That is again really different scale of thing needed compared to what is afforded so easily to do in every non-US country. They do not need to vote on repealing parts of the constitution to do what they have been doing, are doing now...and will continue to do. There is simply no relevant comparison....their constitution as it stands is not a safeguard like it is in the US for inherent inalienable pre-existing (to govt) rights invested in man.