Mind you it is rather hypocritical not to stick on the topic which for this thread is Gujarat massacre and condemn them but bring in train massacre as though 1 was worse than the other
Godhra train burning is part of topic. It would never be divested from Gujarat riots because it is root cause of Gujarat riot. No Train Burning-No Riots. Simple.
QUESTION: Do 2 rights make a wrong in Indian mindset?
(even though this question does not make sense because of logical error but)
Swift and Proportionate/ reaction is perfectly just and moral. It may be immoral from Kantian Moral pov , but an eye for an eye is not only just and moral but also necessary from utilitarian principles. And for any collective action,only utilitarian morality is relevant.
If Hindus do not react to aggression of Muslims with violence, they would be setting up a bad precedent in which muslims think that it is completely OK for them to burn trains full of Hindu pilgrims and this act would occur again and again.
By reacting, Hindus established red lines and ensured that Godhra train burning would not happen again.
Muslims could not have their cake and eat it too. If they kill infidels for some dubious promise of heaven and hoories, they should not complain when infidels react with violence.
Mind you the word retaliation is used when returning the attack...and if you pick any paper it is usually the Israeli who break the cease fire shit and then CLAIM they are protecting their people yet they have not been able to explain all the atrocities they have done even when they "observe" the ceasefire:
^ Its not even hidden or conspiracy shit anymore!
So!!!!!
When Israelis would retaliate against Hamas, some civilians would die too, in crossfire. And your own source states that Israel has started investigation into the incident which is clearly a case civilian victim not following military orders ( going to left where snipers were posted with " Thou shall not Pass" orders , rather than going right).
Compare this with Pali intifada where murders of civilians( not military ) are celebrated as martyrs and Hamas goad Palis into attacking Israeli civilians.
So if Croatian attack Serbs and then Serbs attack Bosnian ...it is somehow justifiable? Or somehow same? Coz mind you not all Croatians and Bosnian are the same...They are 2 separate nations!
Both were part of Yugoslavia. Croatia started ethnic cleansing of Serbs. Serbs cleansed Bosniak Muslims. US attacked Serbs because Serbs had good relation with Russia. In this whole saga, muslims were crying about genocide of Bosniak Muslims while completely ignoring Genocide of Serbs done by Muslims in Parallel.
If you cant prove it from the Quran than it is not Islamic
Thought process of Muslims is Islamic thought process.
That is my question and no one answered it instead you people are jumping on me as to why I dared question!
Which so far like questioning a back ally Mullah has only resulted in Indians jumping up and down, bringing into their probelms everything from Bosnia to Kashmir!
Your question has been answered many time ( including once again in opening paragraph of this very post ). It is not problem of other posters that you did not liked the answer.
Please tell us who said that? And whose sword? Coz I can name ALOT OF historians who are ready to debunk that and say that was a lie spread....Unfortunately India was not update
I said it ,and it comes from common sense.
If someone commits violence, he/she should expect violence in return. It is a law of nature. How more simple could it be?