Basbug
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- Sep 29, 2012
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You have no idea what official language means.During Safavid times,from Shah Ismael to Shah Abbas,the official language of the country was Persian,while the Azerbaijani was commonly used in court and military,especially during Ismael's era.After the capital moved to Isfahan,the court language became Persian too.
In wikipedia,all of the information are available with sources:
Persian (official, coinage,civil administration, court (since Isfahan became capital),high literature, literary, theological discourse,diplomatic correspondence, belles-lettres (adab), historiography, court-based religious posts)
Azerbaijani (court, religious dignitaries, military)
Still I don't understand what you are trying to prove.Shah Ismael,like other kings,was ruling Iran,not Turkistan,not Turkish countries.He never called himself king of Turkiye,Ottomans or any other similar groups,he called himself king of Iran(with all the Persians,Kurds,Turks and those who lived in it),nothing more,nothing less.It is not important for me what his ethnic background is,the important part is he (Safavids) established an empire and unified Iran again and made it rich and powerful.They spread Iranian culture and heritage and hegemony.
But you are the only one here that is obsessed with his ethnic and language,it's like some kind of mental disease.Get over it,before Safavids were Azeris,Kurds,Persians or etc,they were Iranian.
When you rule a country it becomes that countries? So if persian ruled Brazil he's Brazilian? You don't make sense, there's not one Iranian or Persian I've seen who sees Səfəvi as theirs, they do with the other Persian ones though, that says a lot, as I said let's say Persian was ruling Spain, he will most likely use Spanish because it's a known language and spread but it will be a Persian empire NOT SPANISH.