What's new

Brunei adopts sharia law

Shariah is law for slaves. Because their masters will always be above it since they can buy exemption.

Any people that willingly submit to slavery of the mind body and soul deserve the slavery that follows
 
My data was from wikipedia, it says 67% Muslim population, remember wiki has 10% as atheists. To confirm it, I checked CIA factbook and the actual percentage is 78.8%. So still 21% of the total population are non Muslims. Not a small number.

That was Wiki but it may be over blown.

Now look here:

http://www.state.gov/documents/organization/208428.pdf

This is the government statistics


So the point of Sharia is only to stop people having casual sex?
Nope but only a few of the many laws were implemented....according to the article (which had you written you wouldnt have asked this question) there is a 3 stage process...now go read OP!
 
Nope but only a few of the many laws were implemented....according to the article (which had you written you wouldnt have asked this question) there is a 3 stage process...now go read OP!

Will u answer my question?
 
if its is not shariya then why we Hindus had to pay separate taxes taxes during aurangjeb rule. if not separate taxes, then why it is called jiziya. if others are not treated as second class citizen then why they are not allowed to serve in armed forces in shariat rule.
1stly, I cant speak for what aurangjeb did...only he knows for that you will have to follow him to death to question him...

2ndly, I think you meant Jiziya...here is the real meaning of what jizya was supposed to be and what Aurangjeb did to you:

"Jizyah: the root meaning is compensation.......there were exemptions for the poor, for females and children (according to Abu Hanifah), for slaves, and for monks and hermits. Being a tax on able-bodied males of military age, it was in a sense a commutation for military service."

In the Quran the verse from which this Jizya is derived is specifically for that time..

"O ye who believe! Truly the Pagans are unclean; So let them not, After this year of theirs, Approach the Sacred Mosque. And if ye fear poverty, Soon will Allah enrich you, If He wills, out of His bounty, For Allah is All-Knowing, All-Wise.

Fight those who believe not in God nor the Last Day, nor hold that forbidden which hath been forbidden by God and His Apostle, nor acknowledge the religion of Truth, (even if they are) of the People of the Book (i.e., Jews and Christians), until they pay the Jizya with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued. (The Noble Quran, 9:28-29)"

Notice that in Noble Verse 9:28 above, Allah Almighty was referring to a certain situation that the Muslims had to face. "After this year..." clearly and unquestionably suggests that Noble Verses 9:28-29 are for a situation that existed 1400 years ago. They don't necessarily have to apply today.

Why Jizyah? And how much are the taxes for both Muslims and non-Muslims?

The Muslims have to pay taxes (which is 2.5 percent of their annual income) under the name of "Zakah" to the "Muslim Financial Institute" or the "House of the Muslim Money" which all goes to provide welfare to the poor and the needy citizens; from both Muslims and non-Muslims. The poor and the needy (such as the Orphans, Widows and the disabled) from the Muslims are exempt from paying taxes.

The non-Muslims have to pay a varrying amount under the name of "Jizyah", depending on their situation, which is taxes that don't go to help poor and needy Muslims, but instead, it goes to the government to (1) Provide protection for them since they are a minority; (2) Provide means for them to practice their religions freely by building Temples or Churches for them.

As I mentioned above for the non-Muslims, there are exemptions for the poor, for females and children (according to Abu Hanifah), for slaves, and for monks and hermits.

It is important to know that the law in the Islamic State applies to everyone; both Muslims and non-Muslims equally. This means that murderers and rapists get executed, adulterers and adulteresses get flogged 100 stripes, etc...

If Muslims conquered a State by war then the non-Muslims are to be taken as slaves, and later on, they must be given their freedom if they request it and be paid some money too. Please visit: Can a slave request his freedom from his Muslim Master and be granted his freedom in Islam? The Muslim Master must pay him/her money too to get a nice jump start in life too according to the Noble Quran.

Please also visit Human equality, liberty and freedom in Islam V.S. Christianity.

Jizyah in the Bible.
 
Will u answer my question?

He can't. It's a three stage process. I think he needs permission from a shariah court or something. Or maybe he only need their permission to have sex with girls.

Keep the government. The priests. The clerics out of my home and out of my bedroom. Who do these dictators think they are. To tell a human being who he can and can't associate with who he can and can't sleep with. Like I said. Shariah is a law for willing slaves.
 
Shariah is law for slaves. Because their masters will always be above it since they can buy exemption.

Any people that willingly submit to slavery of the mind body and soul deserve the slavery that follows
Lovely coming from one who doesnt know what Shariah is...

Scared of the unknown?! :rofl:

Will u answer my question?
I already did :unsure:

post 149

He can't. It's a three stage process. I think he needs permission from a shariah court or something. Or maybe he only need their permission to have sex with girls.

Keep the government. The priests. The clerics out of my home and out of my bedroom. Who do these dictators think they are. To tell a human being who he can and can't associate with who he can and can't sleep with. Like I said. Shariah is a law for willing slaves.
Here comes the champion of Islamophobe!! :rofl:
 
1stly, I cant speak for what aurangjeb did...only he knows for that you will have to follow him to death to question him...

2ndly, I think you meant Jiziya...here is the real meaning of what jizya was supposed to be and what Aurangjeb did to you:

"Jizyah: the root meaning is compensation.......there were exemptions for the poor, for females and children (according to Abu Hanifah), for slaves, and for monks and hermits. Being a tax on able-bodied males of military age, it was in a sense a commutation for military service."

In the Quran the verse from which this Jizya is derived is specifically for that time..

"O ye who believe! Truly the Pagans are unclean; So let them not, After this year of theirs, Approach the Sacred Mosque. And if ye fear poverty, Soon will Allah enrich you, If He wills, out of His bounty, For Allah is All-Knowing, All-Wise.

Fight those who believe not in God nor the Last Day, nor hold that forbidden which hath been forbidden by God and His Apostle, nor acknowledge the religion of Truth, (even if they are) of the People of the Book (i.e., Jews and Christians), until they pay the Jizya with willing submission, and feel themselves subdued. (The Noble Quran, 9:28-29)"

Notice that in Noble Verse 9:28 above, Allah Almighty was referring to a certain situation that the Muslims had to face. "After this year..." clearly and unquestionably suggests that Noble Verses 9:28-29 are for a situation that existed 1400 years ago. They don't necessarily have to apply today.

Why Jizyah? And how much are the taxes for both Muslims and non-Muslims?

The Muslims have to pay taxes (which is 2.5 percent of their annual income) under the name of "Zakah" to the "Muslim Financial Institute" or the "House of the Muslim Money" which all goes to provide welfare to the poor and the needy citizens; from both Muslims and non-Muslims. The poor and the needy (such as the Orphans, Widows and the disabled) from the Muslims are exempt from paying taxes.

The non-Muslims have to pay a varrying amount under the name of "Jizyah", depending on their situation, which is taxes that don't go to help poor and needy Muslims, but instead, it goes to the government to (1) Provide protection for them since they are a minority; (2) Provide means for them to practice their religions freely by building Temples or Churches for them.

As I mentioned above for the non-Muslims, there are exemptions for the poor, for females and children (according to Abu Hanifah), for slaves, and for monks and hermits.

It is important to know that the law in the Islamic State applies to everyone; both Muslims and non-Muslims equally. This means that murderers and rapists get executed, adulterers and adulteresses get flogged 100 stripes, etc...

If Muslims conquered a State by war then the non-Muslims are to be taken as slaves, and later on, they must be given their freedom if they request it and be paid some money too. Please visit: Can a slave request his freedom from his Muslim Master and be granted his freedom in Islam? The Muslim Master must pay him/her money too to get a nice jump start in life too according to the Noble Quran.

Please also visit Human equality, liberty and freedom in Islam V.S. Christianity.

Jizyah in the Bible.
you did not answer my question why shariat treats its non muslim citizen differently that it doesnot allow to serve them in army? and why when muslims kill others they can get away by paying blood money while it is not true other-way around.
 
now non-muslims have to pay jiziya and treated as second class citizen . how cool . now plz dont ask me why do you care about those. it is same as you ppl have cared about rohingya muslims.
You might find this interesting:


Aurangzeb's Fatwa on Jizya [Jizyah, or Poll Tax]

Much has been made of Aurangzeb's reimposition of the poll tax (jizya, or jizyah) on Hindus. However, as the text of the fatwa, which is seldom read, indicates, an exemption was provided for various classes of people, such as those who were indigent, without employment, unable to work on account of poor health, and so on. Moreover, the fatwa clearly shows that the amount was, far from being uniform, fixed according to a person's ability to pay. The statement that the jizyah was imposed as well on "the people of the Book" -- here doubtless a reference to Christians and Jews -- is particularly significant, since it suggests that there was no animus directed particularly against the Hindus. The translation below is by Anver Emon of the Department of History, UCLA.

Source:

Al-Fatawa al-Alamgiriyyah = Al-Fatawa al-Hindiyyah fi Madhhab al-Imam al-A‘zam Abi Hanifah al-Nu‘man (Beirut: Dar al-Ma‘rifah, 1973), 2:244-245.

If you feel you are much more intelligent then you can discredit UCLA

Manas: History and Politics, Aurangzeb
 
Nope but only a few of the many laws were implemented....according to the article (which had you written you wouldnt have asked this question) there is a 3 stage process...now go read OP!

The OP says that most of the sharia laws will be applied to non Muslims. That is where my concerns are. I am not sure if one fifth of the population who are non Muslims would like to live under sharia. Remember these people are not outsiders who can just go back to some other country if they are not willing to live under sharia. I am assuming that their opinion was not heard. If that's the case then it's a violation of their basic religious rights. I, for one would not want to live under sharia.
 
you did not answer my question why shariat treats its non muslim citizen differently that it doesnot allow to serve them in army? and why when muslims kill others they can get away by paying blood money while it is not true other-way around.
The 1st part is answered in post 161

second part after the court has delivered their verdict that a murderer be murdered he has the right to plea to family of the victims to forgive and the court begs for mercy on behalf of the murderer...this is the final stage when verdict is given...it then falls in the hands of whose child, father, mother, sister, brother was killed....this is to show that the victim is in charge and has gotten their justice...
 
Well it is a nation with 60% Muslims. Which means that 40% of whatever is there is going to soon end up 'embracing islam'.

Funny how our own arab wannabes demand this and that in terms of religious concessions when India has a 84% non-Islamic population.
The problem with our Arab wannabes is that their religious freedom extends only upto Multiple marriages, marriage as soon as girls hit puberty and divorce laws.
I doubt any of these people would be willing to for Sharia for muslims in the true sense of the word.
And frankly if they don't accept uniform civil code I am of the opinion that these people should be subjected to Sharia
 

Pakistan Affairs Latest Posts

Back
Top Bottom