Jee, i wonder if the Taliban also had a excuse for their freedom-restricting laws.
By the way, why is there a German Communist Party (known as the DKP)? Communists/Marxists and their ideology is responsible for the deaths of 60 million people in the former USSR alone, and millions more worldwide.
Ban the NAZI's, forbid holohoax denial, but allow the Commie's??? Sorta contradicts what you stated in your post (the bolded parts).
Gee, I don't know...
Maybe because the 'Stalinist experience' which the peoples of the Soviet-Union endured is absent among the Germans? And that no one is propagating Stalinism in Germany?
And the fact that present day 'communist' parties in Western countries never advocate the policies of mass starvation and mass execution that were employed by Stalin?
Or the fact that almost no one is denying the mass murders that occurred at the hands of Stalin and his henchmen?
Or the fact, among others, that by participating in a fair and free elections by present day 'communist' parties is in itself not communist at all as envisioned by Marxist himself, who was more thinking thinking in the line of a revolution by laborers?
Or the fact that Nazism is inherently linked with racism and and a extermination policy against specific groups and peoples (as witnessed and experienced by many Europeans), whereas Marxism in theory was intended to distribute the wealth equally among all and the strive for a classless society, and that perverted ideologies like Stalinism, Leninism or Maoism, that were derived from Marxism/Communism, have never taken root in and experienced by those countries that want to curb Nazism like Germany and Austria?
So, taken all this into account, why would it make sense to ban social democrats or socialists that are not against the fundamental achievements of a democratic, egalitarian and forbearing constitutional state?
Just a few thoughts why your comparison is so wrong and invalid....
Don't see the contradiction at all.
