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Aryans vs Dravidians?

I dont think that Aryans actually came from foreign land to India .They were quite native to indian subcontinent .The Harappa and Mohanjodaro civilization were already there since the beginning . The Europeons didnot come from outside Europe . Likewise , the Aryans were present in west asia well as India . They didnot come from anywhere else .

Human race was born in Africa and they moved outwards at the end of the last Ice Age some thousands of years ago. So, how do you expect any one inhabiting in India at the early evolution of Homo Sapiens if someone did not migrate physically? Ice melted and the northern zones became more and more habitable for the physically weak Homo Sapiens to live.

Modern men derived in Africa about 200,000 years ago, and they moved out to different places in multiple groups when their habitats became overcrowded, food became scarce and north became habitable. So, one or the other group certainly came to India followed by many other groups that continued even during the recent historical time.

So, this is how the Dravidians, Aryans, Shokks, Huns, Turk and Mongolian - all groups of people immigrated to India and settled here. Some came from west, and some from center north Asia at later times. There have always been movements of people. Even today people are moving to different lands. But, the process has been slowed down.
 
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Bold part:Your assumption here that the majority of Aryan men left their women and children behind in the west Asia and immigrated to India is something cannot be accepted as a truth. There is no proof to support your view. Certainly, both sexes of Aryans came and settled in Indian north/NW.

I think it's obvious that Aryan women & children migrated with their men. You probably misunderstood the point that I was trying to imply. The Indo-Iranian migrations occurred in stages as far as we know at the moment. They didn't arrive as a huge group & simply settle next to the Harappans. I think the more accurate statement is that women were slightly fewer in number in comparison to the men as far as the Indo-Aryans are concerned, not the Indo-Iranians as a whole. The Indo-Aryans or the Vedic people weren't exactly an extremely large group when they settled in northern Punjab. However, their birth rates were extremely high later on, & they placed a huge amount of emphasis on having male children as was the case with many patriarchal societies throughout history. This emphasis on male children may also have resulted from a desire to build a large army for self-defense. Both the Indo-Iranian & Indo-Aryan people migrated as a whole, as in including men, women, & children. Some sources postulate that those migrations were extremely rough due to the terrain & weather conditions in the region. Let's not forget that climatic changes are considered one of the factors leading to the decline of the Harappans themselves.

Even though most of these Indo-Iranian settlements remained in the north western & northern regions of the Sub-Continent, there were some albeit lesser migrations to other portions of the Sub-Continent. To some extent genetic evidence does indicate that according to this study focused on India alone.

Genetic evidence suggests European migrants may have influenced
the origins of India's caste system


Analysis of the paternally transmitted Y chromosome among Indians in general indicated that the Y chromosome had a more European flavor. Maternally inherited mitochondrial DNA among Indians is more Asian than European. This suggests that the Europeans who entered India were predominantly male.

Keep in mind that this study focused on modern day India as a whole. It does not take in to consideration that the majority of those settlements were in the north western (Indus) & norther regions of the Sub-Continent. So we can conclude that men & women were present in proportional amounts in the primary regions of their settlement, but other minor migrations deeper in to the Sub-Continent were carried out by men that ended up marrying local women. That probably explains the results from this study.

Because they wielded supremacy over the local Indians, therefore, the Aryan men took this privilege to take multiple partners/wives from the locals. However, the off-springs born out of these unequal unions by the local mothers were, by Aryan custom, not given the status of Aryan.

They were given Sudra status or any other status the mothers belonged to. This is the reason why Aryan Y-chromsome, inherited from the fathers, is so prevalent among the lower caste Hindus in India. Aryan polygamy, by taking many non-Aryan local women into bed, has created a prevalence of Aryan Y-chromosoms among all groups of Hindus.

Too many of intermarriages in old times alarmed the Aryan leaders and they imposed a strict Caste system in the society to bar people from marrying into other castes.

I am not sure about the status of Aryan in case of birth from non-Aryan women, but if men married women from lower castes, their children would have belonged to the caste of their fathers. Those people would naturally not be Aryans racially, but as the term "Aryan" evolved to refer to people following Vedic culture, then those people may have been considered as cultural Aryans. Some of the migrants that traveled deeper in to the Sub-Continent mixed with the locals there, including women from lower castes, that wiped them out, but their descendants naturally carry traces of their DNA. To be honest, the caste system focused more on occupations, but there was without a doubt a racial twist to it. The Aryans desired to consolidate their power & thus assigned themselves higher castes. Personally, I do not disagree with their desire to preserve their race or heritage, every people has the right to do that. I just think that the caste system wasn't the appropriate method to preserve race, & let's not forget that the rigidity of occupations is unfair as well.

I dont think that Aryans actually came from foreign land to India .They were quite native to indian subcontinent .The Harappa and Mohanjodaro civilization were already there since the beginning . The Europeons didnot come from outside Europe . Likewise , the Aryans were present in west asia well as India . They didnot come from anywhere else .

You may continue to believe whatever you want. Unfortunately, historic, linguistic, & genetic evidence doesn't support your view. Races have migrated for centuries, not just in the Sub-Continent, but in other lands too. The Phoenicians for instance migrated to North Africa & setup the Carthaginian empire, & were the source of their culture & society.
 
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All the south asian including the pakistanis are dravidians.

Every south asian have ASI (Ancestral South Indian) genes. Pakistanis have least amount of ASI genes from Pashtun/Baloch who average 20-30% and Punjabis with average of 25-35%. I think ASI genes are what differentiate south asians from other regions like Iran or Arab countries.

Are you claiming Gandhara never had Hindu influence. :rofl::rofl::rofl::rofl:

I claimed they never had Dravidian Hindu influence, but Vedic one which is normal because thats where it originated. And now you will start saying both are the same and one like Akhand Bharat :woot:
 
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Human race was born in Africa and they moved outwards at the end of the last Ice Age some thousands of years ago. So, how do you expect any one inhabiting in India at the early evolution of Homo Sapiens if someone did not migrate physically? Ice melted and the northern zones became more and more habitable for the physically weak Homo Sapiens to live.

Modern men derived in Africa about 200,000 years ago, and they moved out to different places in multiple groups when their habitats became overcrowded, food became scarce and north became habitable. So, one or the other group certainly came to India followed by many other groups that continued even during the recent historical time.

So, this is how the Dravidians, Aryans, Shokks, Huns, Turk and Mongolian - all groups of people immigrated to India and settled here. Some came from west, and some from center north Asia at later times. There have always been movements of people. Even today people are moving to different lands. But, the process has been slowed down.

Please stop this bs, in the book of RSS nama chapter number 584865 it is clearly mentioned that "Indians" pooped out of India million years ago.

thanks
 
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Gandhara is the home and of kautilya,the infamous 'chanakya' of pakistani paranoia.The one who is supposedly the master of subversive tactics of the 'hindus' was from present day pakistan...from somewhere which was never part of india.:omghaha:
 
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Do you have any updated study? That study is 12 years old! Anyway now its believed R1A1 originated near east or Pakistan specifically. This is what 23andme.com says about it. They cant pinpoint exact location because its thousands of years old, but it seem many people now are pretty sure that Pakistan is most likely country of origin.

"Haplogroup R1a1
Haplogroup R1a1 appears to have arisen in the Near East or present-day Pakistan during the peak of the Ice Age about 18,000 years ago. Until the Ice Age began to wane about 15,000 years ago, it may have been limited to the area around the Black Sea, a region that remained relatively ice-free and hospitable while much of Eurasia was covered by glaciers and tundra."
 
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Gandhara is the home and of kautilya,the infamous 'chanakya' of pakistani paranoia.The one who is supposedly the master of subversive tactics of the 'hindus' was from present day pakistan...from somewhere which was never part of india.:omghaha:

Pakistanis are following Arab religion, doesn't make them arabs does it? Continue to believe in Akhand Bharat crap.
 
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Do you have any updated study? That study is 12 years old! Anyway now its believed R1A1 originated near east or Pakistan specifically. This is what 23andme.com says about it. They cant pinpoint exact location because its thousands of years old, but it seem many people now are pretty sure that Pakistan is most likely country of origin.

"Haplogroup R1a1
Haplogroup R1a1 appears to have arisen in the Near East or present-day Pakistan during the peak of the Ice Age about 18,000 years ago. Until the Ice Age began to wane about 15,000 years ago, it may have been limited to the area around the Black Sea, a region that remained relatively ice-free and hospitable while much of Eurasia was covered by glaciers and tundra."

The origins of the R1a haplogroup are still under study, but you might be interested to know that this haplogroup also exists in regions of Eastern Europe. At this point, the prevailing view remains that migrations from Central Asia reached the Indus. The Kurgan hypothesis is another informative theory you may want to refer to. As far as Europe itself is concerned, the majority of Indo-Europeans over there have been settled since Paleolithic times, the only migrations that took place from Central Asia towards Europe remained focused towards Eastern Europe.

By the way, the quote you have referred to in your post, also points towards regions close to Central Asia as the origin of R1a1.

Croatian genetic heritage: Y-chromosome story

The fact that the second most frequent haplogroup in the mainland and island populations was R1a implies that at least some of the founding ancestral groups of Croatian population originated from Indo-European speaking populations who had possibly migrated from southern Russia 2000 BP carrying this mutation.
 
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Some of our views were similar, but our views regarding the identity of the Indo-Aryans were different, & I think my previous explanations should clear any misconceptions. I give importance to archaeological, historical, cultural, & linguistic evidence as well, but genetic evidence is extremely important because it's the one thing that cannot lie. No one moved from Persia to the Indus, any movement that may have taken place, resulted during the period the Persians ruled over the Indus. The Indo-Iranian migrations to both Iran & the Indus are confirmed as of now. I think we both agree that the Indo-Iranians initially resided in Afghanistan when the migrations from Central Asia began.



The Indo-Aryans are a branch of Indo-Iranians. In fact the Indo-Iranians as a whole are present in modern day Pakistan. The Pashtuns & Balochis are an Iranic people. The Kashmiris & northern Punjabis are purely Indo-Aryan. You previously claimed that the Aryans were the same people as the IVC, that is not true at all & that is why I provided you with a source proving that Indo-European tribes migrated to the Indus. As such the Harappans are different from the Indo-Iranians.



I never claimed that the IVC was linked with the Vedic people, but it remains a fact that the Indo-Aryans lived with the Harappans for a short duration of time till their collapse before the advent of the Vedic civilization. We won't know who they (Harappans) were precisely till their script is deciphered. The Indo-Aryans differentiated themselves from Harappans, but they married some of their women, & adopted certain aspects of their culture. That is why there are some similarities between them.

I read the study that you referred to. The quote of 3000-8000 years from;

Shared Indo-European languages (i.e., Hindi and most European languages) suggested to linguists of the nineteenth and twentieth centuries that contemporary Hindu Indians are descendants of primarily West Eurasians who migrated from Europe, the Near East, Anatolia (Turkey), and the Caucasus 3000–8000 years ago (Poliakov 1974; Renfrew 1989a,b).

This has been quoted from a book written by Leon Poliakov, a French writer of Jewish origin, titled, The Aryan Myth: A History of Racist and Nationalist Ideas in Europe. Renfrew is also quoted, who also quotes from Poliakov. The reference of 3000-8000 years ago is declared highly suspect by various scholars who imply that the main theme of Poliakov’s book was to denounce the Aryan racist theories and this date was not primarily based on historical dating of various pre-historical events and therefore this can not be taken as a historical fact.

Secondly, the association of so-called Indo-Iranians with IVC era is highly suspect as Indo-Iranians are primarily associated with introduction of horse and chariots. No horse or a chariot has ever been found in Harappa and Mohenjodaro or any other qualified IVC era site. This is mere speculation and highly suspect and I do not believe this. You may not agree with me. The assertion that it were Indo-Iranians who settled first in Afghanistan and later along Indus has never been proved archeologically as I said earlier as well that people of BACTRIA did migrate to Iran but not to IVC area. I have a problem with the term Aryan and its historical usage as well. The most comprehensive guide to the early textual history of the term Aryan remains that produced by a Nazi scholar, Hans Siegert (1941/42), but over the past years a series of detailed intellectual histories and themed volumes that touch on the Aryan question have been published. The issue here however is not simply the correcting of a misleading translation or the creation of a historical narrative, but the reconceptualization of the Aryan paradigm, and, as a corollary, the political history of linguistic theorizing.

Thirdly, the study you referred to has been superseded by many other studies that have been conducted later, and if I may, I would like to highlight some the quotes from that study published in the American Journal of Human Genetics in 2011:

The percentage of West Eurasian maternal lineages is substantial (up to 50%) in Indus Valley populations but marginal (<10%) in the south of the subcontinent.

Genome-wide scans on the Human genome diversity panel (HGDP) data involving 51 global populations have revealed that South Asia, represented by Pakistani populations, shares most signals of recent positive selection with populations from Europe,
the Near East, and North Africa.

Our simulations show that differences in haplotype diversity between source and recipient populations can be detected even for migration events that occurred 500 generations ago (~12,500 years ago assuming one generation to be 25 years).

Pakistan consistently appearing markedly more similar to West Eurasian than to Indian populations.

Combined with our ADMIXTURE and PCA results, this is powerful evidence that Pakistan is a poor proxy for South Asian genetic diversity, despite having often fulfilled this role in previous publications.

Within India the geographic cline of the Indus/Caucasus signal is very weak, which is unexpected under the ASI-ANI model, according to which the ANI contribution should decrease as one moves to the south of the subcontinent. This can be interpreted as prehistorical migratory complexity within India that has perturbed the geographic signal of admixture.

It was first suggested by the German orientalist Max Muller that ca. 3,500 years ago a dramatic migration of Indo-European speakers from Central Asia (the putative Indo Aryan migration) played a key role in shaping contemporary South Asian populations and was responsible for the introduction of the Indo-European language family and the caste system in India. A few studies on mtDNA and Y-chromosome variation have interpreted their results in favor of the hypothesis, whereas others have found no genetic evidence to support it.

The demographic history of Central Asia is, however, complex, and although it has been shown that demic diffusion coupled with influx of Turkic speakers during historical times has shaped the genetic makeup.

Patterning suggests additional complexity of gene flow between geographically adjacent populations because it would be difficult to explain the western ancestry component in Indian populations by simple and recent admixture from the Middle East.

In terms of human population history, our oldest simulated migration event occurred roughly 12,500 years ago and predates or coincides with the initial Neolithic expansion in the Near East. Knowing whether signals associated with the initial peopling of Eurasia fall within our detection limits requires additional extensive simulations, but our current results indicate that the often debated episode of South Asian prehistory, the putative Indo-Aryan migration 3,500 years ago falls well within the limits of our haplotype-based approach. Thus, regardless of where this component was from (the Caucasus, Near East, Indus Valley, or Central Asia), its spread to other regions must have occurred well before our detection limits at 12,500 years.



Therefore, any suggestion that there was a migration of people to the IVC after 12500 years before present may stand nullified as per this study.
 
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Gandhara is the home and of kautilya,the infamous 'chanakya' of pakistani paranoia.The one who is supposedly the master of subversive tactics of the 'hindus' was from present day pakistan...from somewhere which was never part of india.:omghaha:

There are those who say that Chanakya was an Ajivaka. Others state that he was a Buddhist. Was he a Hindu?

What was the name of Mauryan empire.
 
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There are those who say that Chanakya was an Ajivaka. Others state that he was a Buddhist. Was he a Hindu?

What was the name of Mauryan empire.

Chanakya's real name was Vishnu Gupta.
 
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I claimed they never had Dravidian Hindu influence, but Vedic one which is normal because thats where it originated. And now you will start saying both are the same and one like Akhand Bharat :woot:

why you mentioned Dravidian Hindu influence. :woot: How you saw Gandhara different. :woot:
 
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Keep in mind that this study focused on modern day India as a whole. It does not take in to consideration that the majority of those settlements were in the north western (Indus) & norther regions of the Sub-Continent. So we can conclude that men & women were present in proportional amounts in the primary regions of their settlement, but other minor migrations deeper in to the Sub-Continent were carried out by men that ended up marrying local women. That probably explains the results from this study.

I am not sure about the status of Aryan in case of birth from non-Aryan women, but if men married women from lower castes, their children would have belonged to the caste of their fathers. Those people would naturally not be Aryans racially, but as the term "Aryan" evolved to refer to people following Vedic culture, then those people may have been considered as cultural Aryans. Some of the migrants that traveled deeper in to the Sub-Continent mixed with the locals there, including women from lower castes, that wiped them out, but their descendants naturally carry traces of their DNA.

To be honest, the caste system focused more on occupations, but there was without a doubt a racial twist to it. The Aryans desired to consolidate their power & thus assigned themselves higher castes. Personally, I do not disagree with their desire to preserve their race or heritage, every people has the right to do that. I just think that the caste system wasn't the appropriate method to preserve race, & let's not forget that the rigidity of occupations is unfair as well.

Bold part: I was talking about the first few thousands of years when the supremacist Aryans made the local their virtual slaves, but mated with their women. The off springs were not allowed the status of their fathers, but were given that of their mothers, who were slaves.

This polygamy, mating and fathering continued for a few millenniums, when this phenomenon alarmed the Aryan masters. They were eager to maintain their purity. So, they imposed full restrictions on unequal marriages.

Only at this juncture, the caste system was introduced.
 
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@eastwatch the Indian folklore says it was common for great kings to take wives from lowest strata of the society like daughter of fisherman but their children followed the lineage of their father without any discrimination. Your theory is not true.
 
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