why Chinese culture can always absorb other cultures and India not

[Airboss786]

[/I][/B]

Is this you?

Yep, that's him, alright! Sure Looks Like Him & He Sure Is 'PURRTY'!LMAO

Good One!

 

[Fattyacids]

Afghanistan, Indonesia and Malaysia are all influenced by Dharmic culture. You can see the influence of India even now in Malaysia,Indonesia South East Asia.

You are nothing but a troll who are going hysterical here

LOL, are you retarded? Afghanistan, indonesia and Malaysia are all Islamic state.
Your dharmic is not a culture, but it's beliefs that came from vedic Aryan. In any case, it failed everywhere else except in the subcontinent.

 

[Fattyacids]

Well most of you Chinese trolls have never been to India, but that doesnt stop you ret*rds from spilling your foul mouth against India does it?

And yes Beijing is part of China. But tell me, is Xinjiang a part of China? Because f it is not, and it has been into a seperate Muslim country for the Muslim CHinese where they are free to practice their relgiion, then I apologize...

Likewise, why don't you learn more chinese history before opening your mouth? Xinjiang has been under CHina's control since Han dynasty 2000 yrs ago. How and where did the Silk Road originate from? Uighur were originally from Mongolia steppe, they were immigrants to Xinjiang.

 

[INDIC]

Sanskrit is an Indo-European language invented by Europeans.

Prove it.

 

[INDIC]

Likewise, why don't you learn more chinese history before opening your mouth? Xinjiang has been under CHina's control since Han dynasty 2000 yrs ago. How and where did the Silk Road originate from? Uighur were originally from Mongolia steppe, they were immigrants to Xinjiang.

Xinjiang was not the part of China continuously for 2000 years, Hans are also not the native of Xinjiang and Tarim basin.

 

[Fattyacids]

Sanskrit came from Avestan, they both originated from Old Slavic, somewhere near present day Lithuania.

 

[China_Rising]

Prove it.

You deny Sanskrit is an Indo-European language?

 

[Fattyacids]

Xinjiang was not the part of China continuously for 2000 years, Hans are also not the native of Xinjiang and Tarim basin.

Xinjiang were directly or indirectly under chinese control. How else then do you have Silk Road? Silk came from China.
Uighurs are also not native Xinjiang. In fact, Han chinese went to Xinjiang before there was Uighur. There is no dispute about that.

 

[INDIC]

You deny Sanskrit is an Indo-European language?

You claimed that Sanskrit is the inventions of Europeans. Now prove it. I read that Southern Hans came from outside forcefully integrated as Hans.

Here is your Chinese history in Short.

 

[China_Rising]

You claimed that Sanskrit is the inventions of Europeans. Now prove it. I read that Southern Hans came from outside forcefully integrated as Hans.

I will ask again. Are you saying that Sanskrit is not an Indo-European language? Give a straight answer.

 

[INDIC]

I will ask again. Are you saying that Sanskrit is not an Indo-European language? Give a straight answer.

Sanskrit is from Indo-Iranian branch of Indo-European Languages. I know Sanskrit also, it shares negligible similarity with European Languages.

Now, prove that it originated in Europe.

Sanskrit came from Avestan, they both originated from Old Slavic, somewhere near present day Lithuania.

Prove this crap.

 

[China_Rising]

Sanskrit is from Indo-Iranian branch of Indo-European Languages. I know Sanskrit also, it shares negligible similarity with European Languages.

It didn't originate in Europe. It originated from *Europeans*.

Who created the Indo-Iranian languages? A bunch of cattle herders in Central Asia which share the same genetic ancestry as the PIE people of Eastern Europe. The Indo-Aryan languages are a branch of the Indo-Iranian languages which are a branch of the Indo-European languages.

I know Sanskrit also, it shares negligible similarity with European Languages.

LOL, so why is it considered to share the same linguistic branch with other Indo-European languages?

All of the Indo-European languages were developed by European people. Vedic Sanskrit is traced to circa 1500 BC. The Indo-Aryans moved into Northern India.... circa 1500 BC.

Coincidence?

Sanskrit, and other Indo-Aryan languages, and indeed all Indo-Iranian languages, share common ancestry with the Indo-European languages in Europe, the same one's that were brought there by the Proto-Indo-European people.

Again, coincidence?

No one is in disagreement that Sanskrit is an Indo-European language, and the developers of this language group have there Urheimat in Eastern Europe. And indeed they moved from there into Central Asia, where they diverged into Indo-Iranians, and from there diverged into Iranians and Indo-Aryans, and from there conquered the Iranian plateau and the Indian subcontinent, respectively.

 

[Fattyacids]

You claimed that Sanskrit is the inventions of Europeans. Now prove it. I read that Southern Hans came from outside forcefully integrated as Hans.

Here is your Chinese history in Short.

A wikipedia map, LOL
Small wonder I read so many threads mocking indian's IQ. Seriously, if you don't have the knowledge, at least be smart enough to acquire it before opening your mouth, least making yourself look stupid. A wiki map is only as credible as wikipedia itself LOL. Does it tell you something? Do you even know how many dynasty china have? And its transitional period?

Territory changes through history, we Chinese have our country and identity since 220BC. Compare to india? Don't talk about territory, you don't even have a country of your own until 1947. It took an European foreign invader to create your country 3500 years later, after the first European foreign invader gave you vedic civilization. The indian circus has gone full circle. LOL

 

[Fattyacids]

double post

 

[Fattyacids]

self delete