Impressive article.
I have never read so much misinformation in my life, and I can rebuke the whole article with relative ease.
For example, the 4,000 Greek manuscript assertions are counterproductive simply because no two are the same even when relating to the same book, chapter and verse.
The article has as its foundation the premise of meticulous scribe’s writing ad verbatim, the validity of which can be ascertained through reference of original Greek manuscripts. Fair enough.
Now Thomas, I want you to do something. Open a copy of your own Bible and reproduce for me what john 8:7 alleges Jesus to have said.
It shouldn’t take too long, and we will take it from there. I also want you to tell me how you view your own Bible, and do you view other versions differently?
Regarding Jesus being the Son of God - what do you mean by that?
Many people are given this title in the Bible, for example:
1 Chronicles, chapter 28:
[Here, David is being quoted.]
3: But God said to me, `You may not build a house for my name, for you are a warrior and have shed blood.'
4: Yet the LORD God of Israel chose me from all my father's house to be king over Israel for ever; for he chose Judah as leader, and in the house of Judah my father's house, and among my father's sons he took pleasure in me to make me king over all Israel.
5: And of all my sons (for the LORD has given me many sons) he has chosen Solomon my son to sit upon the throne of the kingdom of the LORD over Israel.
6: He said to me, `It is Solomon your son who shall build my house and my courts, for I have chosen him to be my Son, and I will be his Father.
7: I will establish his kingdom for ever if he continues resolute in keeping my commandments and my ordinances, as he is today.'
Many prophets are called "Son of God", and some people are even called "lord". An understanding of Jewish way of speaking reveals that such titles simply meant that these individuals were close to God, and no Jew ever interpreted them to mean divinity. So my Question to you is why should Jesus be treated any different?
What is the difference?
Now Thomas, I want you to do something. Open a copy of your own Bible and reproduce for me what john 8:7 alleges Jesus to have said.
As you already know John 8:7 is not in the earliest manuscripts that have survived. Just as my own bible points out. As do any other decent study bibles. However we do know where any changes have been made by comparing copies. john 8:7 is what is considered and interpolation.
The section is not found in its canonical place in any of the earliest surviving Greek Gospel manuscripts; neither in the two 3rd century papyrus witnesses to John nor in the 4th century Codex Sinaiticus and Vaticanus, however all four of these manuscripts may acknowledge the existence of the passage via diacritical marks at the spot. The first surviving Greek manuscript to contain the pericope is the Latin/Greek diglot Codex Bezae of the late 4th or early 5th century. Papias (125 CE) refers to a story of Jesus and a woman "accused of many sins" as being found in the Gospel of the Hebrews, which may well refer to this passage; There is a very certain quotation of the pericope adulterae in the 3rd Century Syriac Didascalia Apostolorum; though without indicating John's Gospel. The Second Epistle of Pope Callistus section 6 contains a quote that may be from John 8:11 - "Let him see to it that he sin no more, that the sentence of the Gospel may abide in him: “Go, and sin no more.”" However the epistle quotes from eighth century writings and is not thought to be genuine.
Until recently, it was not thought that any Greek Church Father had taken note of the passage before the 12th Century; but in 1941 a large collection of the writings of
Didymus the Blind (313- 398) was discovered in Egypt, including a reference to the pericope adulterae as being found in "several copies"; and it is now considered established that this passage was present in its canonical place in many Greek manuscripts known in Alexandria and elsewhere from the 4th Century onwards. In support of this it is noted that the 4th century Codex Vaticanus, which was written in Egypt, marks the end of John chapter 7 with an "umlaut", indicating that an alternative reading was known at this point.
Jerome reports that the pericope adulterae was to be found in its canonical place in "many Greek and Latin manuscripts" in Rome and the Latin West in the late 4th Century. This is confirmed by the consensus of Latin Fathers of the 4th and 5th Centuries CE; including Ambrose, and Augustine. The latter claimed that the passage may have been improperly excluded from some manuscripts in order to avoid the impression that Christ had sanctioned adultery:
"Many prophets are called "Son of God", and some people are even called "lord". An understanding of Jewish way of speaking reveals that such titles simply meant that these individuals were close to God, and no Jew ever interpreted them to mean divinity. So my Question to you is why should Jesus be treated any different?
What is the difference?"
When you say no Jew has interpreted them to mean divinity you are mistaken. Christianity itself was a Jewish sect. to the average Jew after Jesus death and resurrection. It was known as "the way". Today you have within the Jewish community and Israel what are known as Messianic Jews. These are Jews who have come to accept Jesus as the Messiah. There are approximately 500k of them in Israel today. Even those Jews that do not accept Jesus as their Messiah. know that the Messiah is the son of God and is considered equal with God.
Luke 22:70- They all asked, "Are you then "
the" Son of God?"
He replied, "You are right in saying I am."
John 8:54-59- Jesus replied, "If I glorify myself, my glory means nothing. My Father, whom you claim as your God, is the one who glorifies me. Though you do not know him, I know him. If I said I did not, I would be a liar like you, but I do know him and keep his word. Your father Abraham rejoiced at the thought of seeing my day; he saw it and was glad." "You are not yet fifty years old," the Jews said to him, "and you have seen Abraham!" "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!" At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself, slipping away from the temple grounds."
Why did the Jews want to kill him? becuase the Jews knew that by him saying "before Abraham was I am" he was declaring his divinity.
As far as him being the Messiah read Matt 16:13-16
"When Jesus came to the region of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, Who do people say the Son of Man is? They replied, Some say John the Baptist; others say Elijah; and still others, Jeremiah or one of the prophets. But what about you? he asked. "Who do you say I am? Simon Peter answered, You are the Christ, the Son of the living God."
Jesus was put to death for a reason. Because he declared himself to be the Messiah. The Jews were looking for a Messiah that would deliver them from the Romans and setup his kingdom. They did not realize that first he needed to come to reconcile man back to God. He became the sacrificial Lamb taking upon himself the Sins of all. Past, present, and future. that is why it was written that through Abraham all the nations of the world would be blessed.
