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The Aryans did not come from India; they conquered it

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The area was inhabited by Dardic tribes like Kohistanis until Yousafzias moved in and Pashtunised the place.Kudos

Some of ancient Swat samples are very ASI shifted clustering with middle caste tamils, central indians etc. When comparing with moderns day groups they looked like christians and other similar communities in Pakistan.

This could be genetic make up of indus valley before IE speakers started coming in. Anyway waiting till all samples are uploaded so we can see what happened.
 
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to be honest i have not found an ounce of aryan superior race theory (if it a race at all) to be intelligent and it leaves a very vague concept about who truly aryans were and were they even superior for instance

1) aryans have been never known to be the birth of civilizations for example, all the mesopotamian civilizations like akkad, sumerian, elam have been known to be non aryan (since they didn't speak aryan language but semitic ones), there is a theory that elam is infact proto tamilian and since its not discovered, its one of the theories

2) mesopotamians were not persians, please understand this big misconception, i was mislead to believe that mesopotamians were persians but they are not, babylon was not conquered by persian up until 500 BC by achemeaned empire

3) when i researched about persian script i was dumbfounded that persians had no original script, it was first borrowed from cunieform script used by mesopotamians and then arahmaic script was used by persians after that (in cyrus grave you clearly see sumerian cunieform written script)

4) persians didn't come to iran until 1500 BC, mesopotamia existed from 4000 BC or earlier, persians actually started expanding not until 800 BC and its 500 BC when they finally got control over on big cities like babylon and that too lasted only for mere 200 years

5) achaeminid empire existed for only 200 years compared to 150=180 years of mauryan empire, the much glorified perian empire only existed for 200 years was very surprising for me, before it there was median empire borders of which didn't exist more south than modern day azerbaijan, you hear correctly, azerbaijan

6) so my question is, how much real persians are persians themselves? azeris dont call themselves persians, kurds dont call themselves persians, the ''real persia'' today exists in the old civilization of elam and elam is basically thought to be a dravidian or south indian culture as opposed to ''aryans''

7) what was the civilization of so called ''aryans''? the western people boat about the persians and the greeks and the romans, but do you even know, if you read the ''real'' history, the aryan nomads who spoke indo european languages migrated to iran and became settled and civilized kicked the shit out of the babaric indo aryan race? persians adopted to the locl civilized culture and never identified themselves with their barbaric cousins up north.

8) greeks hated aryans, and coined the word ''barbarians'' to distinguish their civilized culture from the northern barbarian nomads who are though to be ''pure'' aryans.

9) greeks themselves didn't have any written script and thus they took generouly the eastern writing system just like persians and adapted it to their environment. all greek cultures, their religion their architecture are inspired by either near eastern civilization of levant (syria, iraq, jordan etc) and ancient egypt.

10) greeks started settling in italy and thus italians began civilized and it was the base of etrusians.

11) the romans who came after etrusians hated their aryan cousins so much that they built walls where they didn't conquer their lands like they build walls in england, hadrian wall it is called today, they practically isolated themselves from their barbaric cousins.

12) the mongolians were not aryans, they were just like any other barbaric nomads who roamed up north, so question arises if mongolians who were same as barbaric aryans, and their genes resembled a lot with their civilized cousins like chinese, japanese, was there any mythical race called aryan?

13) today we know that the turkic people who inhabit the lands of so called ''Caucasus'' are not Caucasus but a mix of Caucasian and mongoloid race, do were the supposed ''aryans'' mongolid and Caucasian mixture in the first place?

14) the brown iranians in the east are nothing like azeris or russians, does it mean that persians are not pure aryan race but they are mixture of aryan (caucasian and local semitic race)?

15) when it comes to indus valley, it is now understood that indus valley was not one ethnic but multi ethnic, from the statues of mohen jo dari it seems, they were not aryans, as they dont carry features of the european race, they resemble pretty much to indians. the indus valley was insanely multi ethnic and scholars such as Mark Kenoyer state that there were different languages spoken using the same indus script. the sino tibetan people wrote in indus, the indo europeans wrote the same script, te so called dravidians or tamils also used the same script, so it turns out india was multi ethnic sinceancient times and it debunks any theory of aryan invasion or migration

16) kushans migrated from east asia to the western present day western china and even though they were culturally linked to persians, they were not persian ethnic people but ethnic turks.

17) the sanskrit language is often called a result of aryan invasion but why is that sanskrit is native form of indo european and doesnt closely resemble languages which are european? this leads me to believe that indo european language had been present for a long long time in india and evolved into sanskrit, an indian language, so it debunkes any theory that sanskrit was spoken in central asia or Caucasus.

18) to me classing all indo european language speaking people is a big mistake, for me, indo european language cannot be termed as ''aryan languages'' or have one source, it is possible that indo european languages were dispersed in prehistoric times to large expanse of lands and settled indian people already knew it since prehistoric times.

19) when it comes to dravidian languages, the kanguage may well have been the main language of indus valley people and many mesopotamian cultures like jiroft and elam but because of sanskrit being language of hindu religoon people accepting hinduism started speak sanskrit language.

20) aryans are considered as superior race because they raided civilized lands, it sould be noted that nomadic tribes spent all their lives on the horse back hunting and gathering that the nomads who have to do gathering and hunting as their lands are unfit for agriculture are very hardy people, agriculture leads to lots of food with minimum labour, the history proves that civilized lands were always raided by nomadic tribes, whether it be mesopotamia, egypt and india was no exception, but to state that indians were originally an inferior race who were always subjugated by barbaric nomadic tribes were superior might be true because indians were civilized people, and they knew more about civilization building than fighting, this is the reason perhaps why no weapons are found in indus valley civilization.

21) through out history egypt and mesopotamia even china were also conquered and subjugated, but as we all know that mesopotamia and egypt along with indus valley and later were the first civilizations of the world

2) are all blue eyed, fair skinned people aryans and all dark skined people dravidians? the elamiites spoke proto tamil language in present day iran close to mesopotamia, and mesopotamians in present day syria iraq are very fair skinned people who never spoke indo european language, we know that egyptain people were anything but aryans, as their never spoke an ounce of indo european language, invanted their own script and spoke their own language. today most of arab speaking nations are fair skinned some even have blue and green eyes, can they be labelled as aryans? because they clearly speak a semitic language. and what about yemenis? are yemenic semitic?

so to conclude, aryan race is just a european made superiority complex term, the barbaric western europeans want to claim supremacy by relating their civilization to ancient india, mesopotamia, egypt etc, do you know at what time period the ''real aryans'' became civilized?

england = 1000 AD (that too by french normans)
norway = 1700 AD the earliest
spain = 400 AD
germany = 1400 AD
france = 1000 AD through normans

celts who are original indo european ''aryan'' tribe'' were all raped and converted into english ancestory by the romans and later french and germans, the true english people were raped and converted into civilized people, so aryans were raped by their own people become civilized and celts became scotish, irish, welsh barbarians who dwelled in the north.

now i will come to superiority complex of pakistanis, they should know their history for instance

1) pakistanis were hindus and buddhists and islam started arriving in pakistan when they were subjugated by turkic afghans. buddhism is a religion of east india not even west, buddha was born close to the place called Bihar and those dark skinned indian biharis not only founded buddhist religion but also founded mauryan kingdom which spread buddhism to present day Pakistan but also central asia.

2) indian buddhism spread for far and wide that all aruan homes in central asia became buddhist, numerous temples and shrines are witness to aryan superior race getting taste of dark skinned indian culture and religion

3) the fair skinned superior Pakistani aryans were hindus and buddhist until 1000 AD when they became muslims, both of these religions have nothing to do with superior aryans, aryans were backward nomadic barbarians who had no religion, persians adopted religion of the mesopotamians and accepted art of superior mesopotamian civilization whom they invaded

4) the numerous indic texts discovered from kabul in afghanistan to gilgit and peshawar are witness of indian scripts and languages which were popularly followed by superior fair skinned aryan pakistanis before dark skinned saudis introduced their semitic religion to them. today persians also follow semitic religion of islam and semitic arabic script and their culture is pretty much semitic all borrowed from arabs as well.

5) Pakistanis have no ounce of persian heritage in them, from buddhism/hinduism, to indian written script to indian adopted culture to indian art until 1000 AD, you were all indians in general unlike you were baptaised by invader turks and persians (again)

6) pashtun afghans shouldnt be high nd mighty as well, you were all hindus and buddhists, then converted, made slaves and destined to serve only arabs and turk kings.

this is nothing but funny
 
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to be honest i have not found an ounce of aryan superior race theory (if it a race at all) to be intelligent and it leaves a very vague concept about who truly aryans were and were they even superior for instance

1) aryans have been never known to be the birth of civilizations for example, all the mesopotamian civilizations like akkad, sumerian, elam have been known to be non aryan (since they didn't speak aryan language but semitic ones), there is a theory that elam is infact proto tamilian and since its not discovered, its one of the theories

2) mesopotamians were not persians, please understand this big misconception, i was mislead to believe that mesopotamians were persians but they are not, babylon was not conquered by persian up until 500 BC by achemeaned empire

3) when i researched about persian script i was dumbfounded that persians had no original script, it was first borrowed from cunieform script used by mesopotamians and then arahmaic script was used by persians after that (in cyrus grave you clearly see sumerian cunieform written script)

4) persians didn't come to iran until 1500 BC, mesopotamia existed from 4000 BC or earlier, persians actually started expanding not until 800 BC and its 500 BC when they finally got control over on big cities like babylon and that too lasted only for mere 200 years

5) achaeminid empire existed for only 200 years compared to 150=180 years of mauryan empire, the much glorified perian empire only existed for 200 years was very surprising for me, before it there was median empire borders of which didn't exist more south than modern day azerbaijan, you hear correctly, azerbaijan

6) so my question is, how much real persians are persians themselves? azeris dont call themselves persians, kurds dont call themselves persians, the ''real persia'' today exists in the old civilization of elam and elam is basically thought to be a dravidian or south indian culture as opposed to ''aryans''

7) what was the civilization of so called ''aryans''? the western people boat about the persians and the greeks and the romans, but do you even know, if you read the ''real'' history, the aryan nomads who spoke indo european languages migrated to iran and became settled and civilized kicked the shit out of the babaric indo aryan race? persians adopted to the locl civilized culture and never identified themselves with their barbaric cousins up north.

8) greeks hated aryans, and coined the word ''barbarians'' to distinguish their civilized culture from the northern barbarian nomads who are though to be ''pure'' aryans.

9) greeks themselves didn't have any written script and thus they took generouly the eastern writing system just like persians and adapted it to their environment. all greek cultures, their religion their architecture are inspired by either near eastern civilization of levant (syria, iraq, jordan etc) and ancient egypt.

10) greeks started settling in italy and thus italians began civilized and it was the base of etrusians.

11) the romans who came after etrusians hated their aryan cousins so much that they built walls where they didn't conquer their lands like they build walls in england, hadrian wall it is called today, they practically isolated themselves from their barbaric cousins.

12) the mongolians were not aryans, they were just like any other barbaric nomads who roamed up north, so question arises if mongolians who were same as barbaric aryans, and their genes resembled a lot with their civilized cousins like chinese, japanese, was there any mythical race called aryan?

13) today we know that the turkic people who inhabit the lands of so called ''Caucasus'' are not Caucasus but a mix of Caucasian and mongoloid race, do were the supposed ''aryans'' mongolid and Caucasian mixture in the first place?

14) the brown iranians in the east are nothing like azeris or russians, does it mean that persians are not pure aryan race but they are mixture of aryan (caucasian and local semitic race)?

15) when it comes to indus valley, it is now understood that indus valley was not one ethnic but multi ethnic, from the statues of mohen jo dari it seems, they were not aryans, as they dont carry features of the european race, they resemble pretty much to indians. the indus valley was insanely multi ethnic and scholars such as Mark Kenoyer state that there were different languages spoken using the same indus script. the sino tibetan people wrote in indus, the indo europeans wrote the same script, te so called dravidians or tamils also used the same script, so it turns out india was multi ethnic sinceancient times and it debunks any theory of aryan invasion or migration

16) kushans migrated from east asia to the western present day western china and even though they were culturally linked to persians, they were not persian ethnic people but ethnic turks.

17) the sanskrit language is often called a result of aryan invasion but why is that sanskrit is native form of indo european and doesnt closely resemble languages which are european? this leads me to believe that indo european language had been present for a long long time in india and evolved into sanskrit, an indian language, so it debunkes any theory that sanskrit was spoken in central asia or Caucasus.

18) to me classing all indo european language speaking people is a big mistake, for me, indo european language cannot be termed as ''aryan languages'' or have one source, it is possible that indo european languages were dispersed in prehistoric times to large expanse of lands and settled indian people already knew it since prehistoric times.

19) when it comes to dravidian languages, the kanguage may well have been the main language of indus valley people and many mesopotamian cultures like jiroft and elam but because of sanskrit being language of hindu religoon people accepting hinduism started speak sanskrit language.

20) aryans are considered as superior race because they raided civilized lands, it sould be noted that nomadic tribes spent all their lives on the horse back hunting and gathering that the nomads who have to do gathering and hunting as their lands are unfit for agriculture are very hardy people, agriculture leads to lots of food with minimum labour, the history proves that civilized lands were always raided by nomadic tribes, whether it be mesopotamia, egypt and india was no exception, but to state that indians were originally an inferior race who were always subjugated by barbaric nomadic tribes were superior might be true because indians were civilized people, and they knew more about civilization building than fighting, this is the reason perhaps why no weapons are found in indus valley civilization.

21) through out history egypt and mesopotamia even china were also conquered and subjugated, but as we all know that mesopotamia and egypt along with indus valley and later were the first civilizations of the world

2) are all blue eyed, fair skinned people aryans and all dark skined people dravidians? the elamiites spoke proto tamil language in present day iran close to mesopotamia, and mesopotamians in present day syria iraq are very fair skinned people who never spoke indo european language, we know that egyptain people were anything but aryans, as their never spoke an ounce of indo european language, invanted their own script and spoke their own language. today most of arab speaking nations are fair skinned some even have blue and green eyes, can they be labelled as aryans? because they clearly speak a semitic language. and what about yemenis? are yemenic semitic?

so to conclude, aryan race is just a european made superiority complex term, the barbaric western europeans want to claim supremacy by relating their civilization to ancient india, mesopotamia, egypt etc, do you know at what time period the ''real aryans'' became civilized?

england = 1000 AD (that too by french normans)
norway = 1700 AD the earliest
spain = 400 AD
germany = 1400 AD
france = 1000 AD through normans

celts who are original indo european ''aryan'' tribe'' were all raped and converted into english ancestory by the romans and later french and germans, the true english people were raped and converted into civilized people, so aryans were raped by their own people become civilized and celts became scotish, irish, welsh barbarians who dwelled in the north.

now i will come to superiority complex of pakistanis, they should know their history for instance

1) pakistanis were hindus and buddhists and islam started arriving in pakistan when they were subjugated by turkic afghans. buddhism is a religion of east india not even west, buddha was born close to the place called Bihar and those dark skinned indian biharis not only founded buddhist religion but also founded mauryan kingdom which spread buddhism to present day Pakistan but also central asia.

2) indian buddhism spread for far and wide that all aruan homes in central asia became buddhist, numerous temples and shrines are witness to aryan superior race getting taste of dark skinned indian culture and religion

3) the fair skinned superior Pakistani aryans were hindus and buddhist until 1000 AD when they became muslims, both of these religions have nothing to do with superior aryans, aryans were backward nomadic barbarians who had no religion, persians adopted religion of the mesopotamians and accepted art of superior mesopotamian civilization whom they invaded

4) the numerous indic texts discovered from kabul in afghanistan to gilgit and peshawar are witness of indian scripts and languages which were popularly followed by superior fair skinned aryan pakistanis before dark skinned saudis introduced their semitic religion to them. today persians also follow semitic religion of islam and semitic arabic script and their culture is pretty much semitic all borrowed from arabs as well.

5) Pakistanis have no ounce of persian heritage in them, from buddhism/hinduism, to indian written script to indian adopted culture to indian art until 1000 AD, you were all indians in general unlike you were baptaised by invader turks and persians (again)

6) pashtun afghans shouldnt be high nd mighty as well, you were all hindus and buddhists, then converted, made slaves and destined to serve only arabs and turk kings.

this is nothing but funny

hmmm interesting but wrong. Sanskrit origin isn't ganges but euroasian steppe. And now we have ancient DNA from region so no doubts left now.
 
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Aryans were not europeans , they raided europe . they were enemies of europeans.
 
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hmmm interesting but wrong. Sanskrit origin isn't ganges but euroasian steppe. And now we have ancient DNA from region so no doubts left now.

this is the exact crap which aryan theory states, if sanskrit was spoken in euroasian steppe, prove it.
 
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only Dravidians are native to the land.. there is even a faint link between Dravidians and the long lost IVC.

Dravidian people are native (to tropical India), but the language came from ancient Elam in Iran.
 
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this is the exact crap which aryan theory states, if sanskrit was spoken in euroasian steppe, prove it.

What crap, stop believing in hindutva theory of ganges origin of sanskrit. After latest ancient samples there is little doubt left.
 
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if sanskrit was spoken in euroasian steppe, prove it.

Sanskrit was not spoken in Steppe. It was the mother of Sanskrit. (Sanskrit is not even the language the Vedic people spoke.)
 
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What crap, stop believing in hindutva theory of ganges origin of sanskrit. After latest ancient samples there is little doubt left.

what ancient samples? stop being a slave of european neanderthals claiming everything as aryan.
 
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fuhrer_of_the_aryan_race_by_kova031.jpg
 
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Sanskrit was not spoken in Steppe. It was the mother of Sanskrit. (Sanskrit is not even the language the Vedic people spoke.)

there is no way to prove what vedic people spoke as there is no written document, but the vedic chants are based on sanskrit and are infact the oldest indo european literature in existence.
 
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there is no way to prove what vedic people spoke as there is no written document, but the vedic chants are based on sanskrit and are infact the oldest indo european literature in existence.

No Indian academic believes Vedic people spoke Sanskrit. Sanskrit was created much later by Panini. Ask around.
 
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what ancient samples? stop being a slave of european neanderthals claiming everything aryan.

Read OP. Aryans were not responsible for middle eastern and harappa civilization but neither were Indians aka austroasiatic people of ganges valley before aryans civilised them.
 
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Dravidian people are native (to tropical India), but the language came from ancient Elam in Iran.

so if indo european language is spoken in india and pakistan, the aryan migrated to sub continent, where as dravidians didn't come from elam if elam's language taken by ''native dravidians'' and elam given was part of mesopotamia was not expected to adopted various semitic languages of akkad and sumer but invent its own language and pass it on to indians

height of superiority complex and looking indians as inferiors :lol:

No Indian academic believes Vedic people spoke Sanskrit. Sanskrit was created much later by Panini. Ask around.

you should read history of sanskrit before making BS claims, sanskrit was very much spoken in vedic era and many vedic chants are based in sanskrit language. it is infact claimed that around 1500 BC aryans migrated and brought sanskrit with them, so it means it must have been spoken in ''europasian teppe''

Read OP. Aryans were not responsible for middle eastern and harappa civilization but neither were Indians aka austroasiatic people of ganges valley before aryans civilised them.

there is no aryan race, you are just brainwashed by your european masters, a race is not based on linguistics, aryan race is pretty much concocted based on indo european language theory nothing else. their is no any race other then mongoloids, caucasians and africans. indians are pretty much caucasians nothing else.
 
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