Jackdaws
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Of course not. The Maharaja wanted his state to be independent. And Standstill Agreements and Accession Agreements were mutually exclusive - he was well within his rights to sign any with either of the new States. So even if he had signed the Accession Agreement with India, Pakistan was still obligated to honor the Standstill Agreement. Ask any legal expert.Quite the contrary, it was the Maharaja who violated the stand still agreement (with Pakistan) by signing accession agreement with India .. Pakistani troops entered Kashmir only when the Maharaja had violated the stand still agreement (i.e. the Indian troops had already invaded Jammu.
Did the Maharaja actually sign the accession document (or does such a document even exist) or what legal or moral authority the Maharaja had to sign an accession when he had already lost control/authority over the State of Jammu or Kashmir, of course, is another debate ..
Rule by majority? LOL - sure, did Jinnah believe in that or did he fight for minority rights?https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Democracy
Stupidity of Indian has no bounds when the deluded losers lists azad Kashmir as only disputed
Ever heard the term rule by !majority?
Such as AFSPA, sure