What's new

Motivations behind selecting the name 'India' in 1947

Status
Not open for further replies.
What a scholarly flourish!

There is no difference, none whatsoever, between the residents of the sub-continent of South Asia and the inhabitants of the Indus Valley Culture, with the exception of the Pushto, the Baluch and the Parsis. This is according to a study of haplotypes available in Pakistan, conducted as a follow-up and local specialisation in the Luigi Luca Cavalli-Sforza studies of genetic types in different regions.

Dear Sir,
Good luck with that argument. You cannot hope to change by force of facts what they already know to be true, namely that they have nothing in common with you. Even if you do manage to silence them for now, be rest assured that the same argument will be repeated by the same gentlemen till you, like me get tired of refuting arguments that you think you have already dealt with. There is a Kannada proverb which you are probably aware of, translating as " Just because you think you have a strong head does not mean that you can bang it against a boulder". Take care with your head Sir, there is a lot in there that the rest of us are interested in.

Btw, what is your take on the contradictions that the genetic studies show with the theory of an Aryan movement from Central Asia, the basis for caste divisions etc?
 
If your truth = ignore all facts, then yes you know truth.

But that truth is not truth, just blind belief :)

@absmonarch
@Capt. Popeye
@Bang Galore

Will some kind soul please tell the latest crop of Wikipediacs the difference between Homo Erectus and Homo Sapiens?

Can some beacon of logic kindly go on to tell our Wikiwonders that Homo Erectus sites abound in South Asia? That the remains in Mohenjodaro happen to be Homo Sapiens? That Mehrgarh is relevant, as a typical 'root-site' for the IVC cities, Homo Erectus sites are not?

There are a thousand other points, but who will stand up against the pantheon of wiki-talent concentrated on the other side?
 
Dear Sir,
Good luck with that argument. You cannot hope to change by force of facts what they already know to be true, namely that they have nothing in common with you. Even if you do manage to silence them for now, be rest assured that the same argument will be repeated by the same gentlemen till you, like me get tired of refuting arguments that you think you have already dealt with. There is a Kannada proverb which you are probably aware of, translating as " Just because you think you have a strong head does not mean that you can bang it against a boulder". Take care with your head Sir, there is a lot in there that the rest of us are interested in.

Btw, what is your take on the contradictions that the genetic studies show with the theory of an Aryan movement from Central Asia, the basis for caste divisions etc?

No contradiction at all.

Quite clearly a very small number of immigrants brought in the Sanskrit and associated Indo-Aryan languages.

In genetic terms, they were so small in number that the immigrating pools of genes were readily absorbed into the earlier Kol-Dravidian population at large; in linguistic terms, the Aryan languages overwhelmed their predecessors. This was both due to the extensive as well as intensive use of these by the ruling classes originating from the immigrants and by adoption by those ruling classes joining the immigrants. So the language spread all over north India, down the Indus valley, down the Ganges valley, up the Brahmaputra, and down the Narmada.

I believe that the caste system, after the genetic studies have shown clearly that there was ZERO genetic distinction between the different castes, was a socio-anthropological phenomenon only. We were just unlucky to get a specially concentrated dose of rule-based occupation distinctions.

There was EXACTLY the same situation prevailing in the Trans-Oxiana steppes when the Scythian ruled over the steppes; the Scythians imposed their language, originally a border language of the Indo-Iranian split, later a distinctive east Iranian dialect, on to the varied genetic mixture that congregated as Scythians.

A third example was that of the Turks. Turkish was spoken by a collection of genetic identities, and served to harness them under one language and convert them into the Turkic and Turkish tribes.

In none of the three cases have researchers observed much genetic homogeneity; in all three, it was language that conferred identity.

In general, Cavalli-Sforza's initiative taken into the modern world has effectively discredited race as an identifier.
 
No contradiction at all.

Quite clearly a very small number of immigrants brought in the Sanskrit and associated Indo-Aryan languages.

In genetic terms, they were so small in number that the immigrating pools of genes were readily absorbed into the earlier Kol-Dravidian population at large; in linguistic terms, the Aryan languages overwhelmed their predecessors. This was both due to the extensive as well as intensive use of these by the ruling classes originating from the immigrants and by adoption by those ruling classes joining the immigrants. So the language spread all over north India, down the Indus valley, down the Ganges valley, up the Brahmaputra, and down the Narmada.

Maybe, maybe not.Not quite convinced. What is being suggested by you is a new theory to fit the genetic facts, all previously prevalent theories seem to go out of the window in light of those studies. The dates of the Aryan movements are a problem because of the importance of Saraswathi in the Rig veda. In previous theories this was largely discounted as mythical and therefore the dates could be moved as close as 1500 B.C. The drying up of the most important river & the tectonic shifts which resulted in the Sutlej moving into the Indus & Yamuna moving towards the Ganges would have been monumental if that happened very suddenly. The fact that the Saraswathi is mentioned as late as the Mahabharata(even if no longer mentioned as a flowing river) indicates a substantial passage of time where this occurred. The dates are important because it changes everything previously assumed. For the Indus to become the river it is and for it be the origin of the name that India is now known by, it must have postdated the drying up of the Saraswathi. So when was the Rig veda composed?

The other problem is a complete lack of any evidence of widespread use of a pre aryan language system in Northern india. Some evidence must be around somewhere if the pre aryan people remained the majority. The similarity of religious figures in the whole of India especially when there was a concept of Aryavartha prevailing is a little odd. If the South of the Vindhyas was normally a no go zone then how did it start to resemble the North including in the concept of caste which incidentally is a post Rig vedic phenomenon.

Too many questions, too little answers. The genetic studies seem to have opened up a Pandora's box.
 
Please keep your promise - let it be your last.

Being confronted with Google scholars in season and out of season is irritating in the extreme. There is no harm in resorting to Wikipedia on an area on which one has no expertise, in order to get one's bearings, but this has to be subject to the opinions of those trained in the disciplines concerned, and the fine details in Wikipedia should not be brandished under the noses of others as possessing any legitimacy beyond a preliminary direction to further research.



True. And you failed to get the linguistic point, like some others earlier: neither did the term Hapta-Hindu refer to the whole sub-continent. The term Hindu, in its late mediaeval connotations, meaning black man, did refer to residents of the whole sub-continent. Hapta-Hindu was Avestan, about 2000 BC to 1500 BC; the other connotation may be as late as Sassanian.



Both the Persians, due to their occupation and rule of cis-Indus territory, and the Greeks, due to their explorations, knew about land that lay beyond Punjab. There are profuse citations of historical literature and of old geographical tracts, even maps based on those old tracts, which have been reproduced here; there is no longer any excuse for pretended ignorance about Persian and Greek knowledge of conditions well within the sub-continent, at the minimum about the Gangaridae, Prasii and Icthyophagi, arguably at least about the Golden Chersonese. By the time of the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, the eastern coastline all the way until the south-east Asian coastline was known.



For those scholars who are determined to stay within Wikipedia and its mind-numbing inaccuracies, it is advisable to Google for Hapta-Hindu and see the evident results.

As anyone can do this and get the same results, your particular betisse in defining Hindu as a word of Sassanian origin can be demonstrated to be an egregious error using your own favourite source of information and knowledge. There is a lot of difference between the Avestan Vendidad and the inscriptions of Shapur. About 2,200 years, in fact.

About your statement about the name Hindustan, it is apparent that you have lost the thread (in more senses than one, it is tempting to surmise).

This thread is about India's selection of the word India to describe itself as a nation-state. It is not about the nooks and crannies of the use of the word Hindustan; that is not, in fact, a word under discussion, while the word Hindu is under discussion. The reason for that, clear to all who have kept their mental balance and a sense of direction, is that the word Indikos was derived from the Greek mispronunciation of Hindu; so Hindu is relevant. Hindustan had nothing to do with the Greeks, although it had a lot to do with history otherwise, therefore it is not relevant to this discussion.



If you are willing to wait a month or so, I shall endeavour to get Professor Cavalli-Sforza's personal expression of gratitude to you to have so handsomely validated some 40 years of genetic research. As a preliminary, thank you for condescending to endorse what nearly two generations of population geneticists have been toiling over. Now they know what it is like to be given a medal by Napoleon.



Perfectly sensible and clear and lucid.

No difference between people of the sub-continent, but Pakistanis are not South Asian, they are south Central Asian.

Ah, I see. First History was laid low, now it is the turn of geology and geography, not in that order necessarily.

Continental drift has apparently set in faster and harder than ever before, and after 1947, inspired by Nazaria-e-Pakistan, Pakistan itself has been separating itself from the rest of South Asia.

No doubt soon we will find a Wikipedia entry justifying this. It's such a shame that even that rag-tag and bobtail collection of miscellaneous information baulks at your creative geological forays.

It's also such a shame that some treacherous unpatriotic Pakistanis have blown holes in your arguments before even you had a fair chance to place it for review with your peers, and also in front of the rest of the world which enjoys unrestrained free movement. Their studies, reported in the Journal of American Genetics, taking the Cavalli-Sforza experiments dramatically forwards, shows that there is no difference, in terms of genetics between any on the sub-continent - specifically, between Pakistanis and other south Asians.

Too bad. You should set somebody behind that dastardly lot of scientists - I don't know who is currently favoured for jobs of this sort - who knows, perhaps a Google search through Wikipedia might help?

PS: What is a PureAryan ?

In case Wikipedia has failed you on this point as well, it might be worth your noting that there are Indo-Aryan languages, but no Aryan race, not since the last of the Nazis died.

If you describe yourself as PureAryan, you are laying claim to speaking some branch of the Indo-Aryan branch of languages; it does not, regrettably, offer you any genetic or racial cachet.

A typical pathetic attempt to deceive, trick, and misguide people for spreading disinformation, Just who are you trying to impress with your scholarly English, we all know the literacy rate of Bharat don’t we.
I couldn't even understand half of your diatribe and there is not a single reference you have given me while I did give you reference.
Your failure to give any reference and your cheap tactic of using shoddy vocabulary to impress upon others has earned you zero credibility. Sir, you know nothing about Pakistan’s history.
The Aryans associated with the Rig Veda and Sapta Sindhu (i.e. today's Pakistan region) had nothing to do with Ganga valley and they were not Hindu because they did not follow the Hindu caste system, they ate beef, sacrificed cows, culturally were closer to Avestan Iranians, forbade idolatry, etc. Also, not a single Hindu idol/temple has been excavated from the Rig Vedic Aryan period. “The evidence of the Rig Veda shows that during the centuries when the Aryans were occupying the Punjab and composing the hymns of the Rig Veda, the north-west part of the subcontinent was culturally separate from the rest of India. The closest cultural relations of the Indo-Aryans at that period were with the Iranians, whose language and sacred texts are preserved in the various works known as the Avesta, in inscriptions in Old Persian, and in some other scattered documents. So great is the amount of material common to the Rig Veda Aryans and the Iranians that the books of the two peoples show common geographic names as well as deities and ideas”. Arywarta was the region composed of Indus valley, Punjab and sindh were sacred. The aryavartans(Punjabis and Sindhi) called the people living in Ganga valley as Dasya vartans. Source (Pakistan and Western Asia, By Prof. Norman Brown)

The name hind was first applied to Bharat when Arabs invaded Sindh and called everything east of Sindh as Hind including South East Asia. Arabs called the region between Arabian Sea and Hindu Kush as Sindh. Source Chach Nama

Again you are making a joke of yourself, there were dozens of independent kingdoms in Pakistan during the time of Alexander invasion, some of the famous were Kingdom of Porus, Ghandhara kingdom, Kambojas, Swat, bajour, Malli, Surashtra, and there are dozens more. Alexander and Persians only knew about land beyond Punjab when they invaded those regions. Aristotle had told Alexander of ancient India(modern Pakistan) as being narrow and a great ocean lay beyond. Source Albert Brian Bosworth «Alexander and the East: The Tragedy of Triumph»
They only came to know of Gangaridae, Prasii and Icthyophagi after they invaded ancient India.
The land west of river Indus is part of ancient Persia and central Asia which makes up around 60-70% Pakistan’ total area. Punjab and Sindh has always been knows as proper India and lies at the crossroads of Central, South and West Asia. Just because Bharat stole the name of ancient Pakistan(India) doesn’t means we will accept you people as our own. Source History of Pakistan Ahmed Danni
About 50 % of Indians are Australoid-Negroid by race, 35% Caucasoid, and 15% Mongoloid in their overall genetic composition. Majority of Indians are darker in their skin colour. About 70% of Pakistanis are Caucasoid by race, 20% Australoid- Negroid, and 10% Mongoloid in their overall genetic composition. Majority of Pakistanis are tall with fair skin complexion, similar to Middle Eastern and Mediterranean peoples. Linguistically speaking, India is only about one-half to three quarters Indo-European, while Pakistan is an almost entirely Indo-European speaking country up to ninety-nine percent. Source Encyclopedia of Indo-European culture

Final note: Keep trying hard to prove Indians and Pakistanis are same people, no Pakistani will ever want to associate themselves to you. Just because you people have adopted our language (Sanskrit, Urdu), our culture, claim our heritage as your own, you people have forgotten your real Dravidian roots. Wake up Bharat.
 
Last edited:
:woot:

I don't recall even the British imperialists /Ahmed Qureshi/Zaid Hamid coming up with such crap.

Sorry, it's supposed to be 50% australoid. I read these books a while ago so my apologies.

i have fixed that
 
Last edited:
Sorry, it's supposed to be 50% australoid. I read these books a while ago so my apologies.

I guess those books are obsolete or either your are throwing numeric values as you please.

Historically scholars tried to classify Indians from a racial piont,it didn't work out,too diverse.

Later they tried based on genetic parameters,even that didn't work,since each new study disproves the previous held fact.

So finally what everyone agree on is division of Indians based on ethno-linguistic lines.
 
I guess those books are obsolete or either your are throwing numeric values as you please.

Historically scholars tried to classify Indians from a racial piont,it didn't work out,too diverse.

Later they tried based on genetic parameters,even that didn't work,since each new study disproves the previous held fact.

So finally what everyone agree on is division of Indians based on ethno-linguistic lines.

Excluding the number everything is from books, reference given, the source for racial classification is at www.storyofpakistan.com/discforum/topic.asp?topicid=254 its not opening but
 
Last edited:
Why you people obsess with racial thing? Every discussion become about race, skin colour, gene.

It is sad. You should think about future of poor people of Pakistan instead of prove that they are fair and Aryan or something.
 
Our elders in Pakistan always refer to india as hindustan. For them india = british india and after british left, two nations were formed Pakistan and Hindustan.

When my grandparents and their friends talk about india they always refer to that country as hindustan. My grandfather visited delhi and tells us stories of his visit and always refers to that country as hindustan and to the people there as hindustanis. Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah in his speeches always referred to today's india as Hindustan and our country as Pakistan.

For those who were alive during partition, india = british india that is no longer on earth today. Hindustanis kept the words india and indians because they want to claim everything that was once part of british india.
 
Cant understand why we must see an ulterior motive in everything.

India existed even before the brits came , when they left a part of India seperated to form a new entity while the rest of India remained.

Thats all.
 
Our elders in Pakistan always refer to india as hindustan. For them india = british india and after british left, two nations were formed Pakistan and Hindustan.

When my grandparents and their friends talk about india they always refer to that country as hindustan. My grandfather visited delhi and tells us stories of his visit and always refers to that country as hindustan and to the people there as hindustanis. Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah in his speeches always referred to today's india as Hindustan and our country as Pakistan.

This habit can be attributed ,of your elders , them assuming Pakistan was encapsulation of Muslims of entire India.Which wasn't the case considering many Muslims stayed in India and further the event of 1971 was the last straw to this 2 nation theory.


For those who were alive during partition, india = british india that is no longer on earth today. Hindustanis kept the words india and indians because they want to claim everything that was once part of british india.

We cling to the name India because our new nation being a pluralistic, multilingual and multiethnic society ,we didn't want a name biased in any case.
Hence the obvious pick was India
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top Bottom