1.Kashmir belongs to india.
I think we all know that that british india was divided was along the lines of religion with the majority muslim areas making up pakistan and the majority hindu areas making up india.
Going of off this simple logic it is obvious that kashmir should go to pakistan.....after all it is a majority muslim area.If kashmir can not go to pakistan then the people of kashmir should at least have the choice between india,pakistan or independence.
Except that this rule of majority didnt apply to princely states, and Kashmir was a princely state. The rule that applied was that the rulers and rulers alone would decide which way to swing. Plebiscite was Indias self-imposed obligation in accordance with what was followed in Junagadh and Hyderabad. In fact, Kashmir wouldnt have become such an imbroglio if Jinnah hadnt become so impatient, or at least didnt reject Mountbattens suggestion of plebiscite as early as 1st Nov, 1947 (I have to check the date).
2.The maharaja gave to kashmir to india.
The case of hyderabad junagadh come to mind......do i smell double standards?
The double standard is on your part. Pakistan first rejected plebiscite in any of the princely states of Junagadh, Hyderabad and Kashmir and wanted accession as per Section 6(1) of India Act, 1935. (That section declared that accession will be deemed to have been completed if the ruler had executed the Instrument of Accession). But then when Pakistanis realized that their plans in Kashmir were coming to naught, they immediately changed their position and started asking for plebiscite. That is hypocrisy.
Contrast that to Indias position. India had always maintained that plebiscite would be the key. Accordingly, plebiscite in Junagadh and Hyderabad was held. Unfortunately, in Kashmir, Pakistans presence complicated things, particularly because Pakistan was unwilling to honour its obligation under the UN resolutions. Since plebiscite was contingent upon Pakistans withdrawal of its own citizens and tribesmen (and subsequent demilitarization), which never happened, plebiscite never happened.
3.The UN resolution (international)
It was you indians that took it to the UN in the first place.
So. The resolutions are under Chapter VI, which merely make them recommendatory.
4.Shimla accord.(bilateral)
After the invasion of sachin by india the shilma accord is void.
Siachen would be violation of Shimla Accord, if you can prove that Siachen was part of Pakistan. Regardless of that, if your logic is to be followed, then UN resolutions became void, the moment PA broke the cease fire agreement in 1965.
5.Chinese bit of kashmir.
So india has no problem with this becoming a trilateral issue?
O yes, we have. It is a bilateral issue and no apple of Pakistans eye has any role here.
As the indian members love telling us how much kashmiris love india why are you guys not willing to put it to the test and have a vote on the issue.
Sure. Why not. I am assuming that all Pakistanis have been withdrawn from all of P0K.
O wait