Is Sanskrit really an “Indo-European” language?

[Hindustani78]

Tell me one thing are you even concerned about saskrit and culture associated with it?

Pakistanis left these things long time ago when earth was born in 7th century and qasim arrived to create pakistan.

Arabs use to have trade relations with almost all the Indian Kingdoms and they use to call even the South India as Al Hind which means that these are the people of Indus valley civilization.

Prophet of Islam Muhammed Pbuh himself use the term Al Hind/Land of India during his lifetime around 629 A.D.

 

[Levina]

You know one thing until just 3500-4000 years ago the land east of Indus(present day India) is full of forests with no civilisation..it is only with the advent of iron that people started coming in and started making settlements here by clearinf forests(of course there were some tribal communities which were residing in those forests itself)..then how could it be possible for people to move out of India when the whole India itself doesn't have any civilised people?

It is wrong to assume that there were only forests towards the east of Indus, that's another myth.
May be you missed this news
Rare discovery pushes back Iron Age in India
It is quite a possibility that archeologists might stumble upon another advanced ancient civilisation in the Deccan region.
It is a well known fact that not much is known of Southern India's past. Iron Age, Pandya, cholas and Cheras are where our history begins.
But let me remind you that there has been non stop human inhabitation in southern India since last 17000yrs or so. This reminds me of how a Britisher accidentally stumbled upon the Ashoka chakra and Ashoka's pillars in Bihar where non stop inhabitation had completely destroyed history.

I will reply back to your other posts(about Sanskrit) later.

 

[scionoftheindus]

Two problems with that. One is that the Harappan civilization is older than that and one runs into the Sarasvati problem in the Rig veda with that time period.

OK ....even if you consider IVC ,it has extended only up to western uttar Pradesh in the east and northern Maharashtra in the south..what about the rest of India?moreover it was proved that people of IVC didn't speak Sanskrit..then who took Sanskrit out of India?

 

[scionoftheindus]

You should read the books "The Origin and Development of the Bengali Language" and "Indo-Aryan and Hindi" bu Suniti Kumar Chatterjee. These books have the deepest studies of the language. Very specialized. Includes numerous references, annotations, explanations, comparisons with old languages, Certainly not easy to read.

I tried it on amazon..couldn't find it..can you tell me where I can buy it.

 

[Levina]

Shashi Tharoor is not an expert in the subject. There is only so much common sense can achieve.

Hahahaha
It's shashi Thadani!!!
Gosh!!

In Pak related threads we have people taking religion to an obscure level and in India related threads we have people taking nationalism to an obscure level.

This is why extreme forms of religion and nationalism is bad for you kids, it makes you think like a complete idiot.

You're mistaken!!!
Europeans had run a propaganda to destroy Indian culture and heritage. They were the ones to come up with the Aryan-Dravidan theory.
Gradually as India is developing, more of their theories are being debunked. That's all!!

 

[Srinivas]

Haha! When out of arguments, you guys bring in Muhammad Bin Qasim and the Arabs. My ethnic language, Potohari is thought to be descended from Gandhari, which was descended from Sanskit. So much for you talking about "structures".

If you want to prove my statement as false then prove it ..... do not try to troll !

 

[scionoftheindus]

ANI and ASI is an outdated concept. The Caucasian(Caucasus Mountains) and ancient North-Eastern European genes are more or less non-existent in most Indians, with Tamils having 0% on average. Kalaash on average have 18% Caucasian genes on the other hand, and some 10-20% Northern European. Upper caste Punjabis like Khatris also show a high Caucasian component, with one sample showing a 20% Ancient Northern European. No wonder all your bollywood "Greek gods" happen to be Khatris, i.e Hrithik Roshan, Ranbir Kapoor, etc.

The only Caucasian and Ancient European component carrying samples in South India are Brahmins, most of whom went there from the north.

No point in arguing with you.bye

 

[livingdead]

Hahahaha
It's shashi Thadani!!!
Gosh!!


You're mistaken!!!
Europeans had run a propaganda to destroy Indian culture and heritage. They were the ones to come up with the Aryan-Dravidan theory.
Gradually as India is developing, more of their theories are being debunked. That's all!!

oh noooo...

 

[Bang Galore]

OK ....even if you consider IVC ,it has extended only up to western uttar Pradesh in the east and northern Maharashtra in the south..what about the rest of India?

I have no idea except to quote the Donald Rumsfield adage that absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. Having said that there is nothing much to argue with what you have stated above except that it bears no direct connection to your earlier point.

moreover it was proved that people of IVC didn't speak Sanskrit..then who took Sanskrit out of India?

Nothing is proved, no one has ever heard the language or translated the language though the chances are that you are probably right in that assertion. I'm not making the argument that Sanskrit was taken out of India etc, I don't know where you are going with that line.

 

[ghoul]

@save_ghenda Check kar yeh. Their laughable denial of Indo-Aryan invasion, yet their film industry only hires purer Aryans like Khatris of Punjab rather than their masses.

No point in arguing with you.bye

Haha. Jab phat jaye tau "no point in arguing". Check Harappa Ancestry Project | Genetics and South Asia to discover the bitter truth about your aboriginal heritage.

 

[scionoftheindus]

It is wrong to assume that there were only forests towards the east of Indus, that's another myth.
May be you missed this news
Rare discovery pushes back Iron Age in India
It is quite a possibility that archeologists might stumble upon another advanced ancient civilisation in the Deccan region.
It is a well known fact that not much is known of Southern India's past. Iron Age, Pandya, cholas and Cheras are where our history begins.
But let me remind you that there has been non stop human inhabitation in southern India since last 17000yrs or so. This reminds me of how a Britisher accidentally stumbled upon the Ashoka chakra and Ashoka's pillars in Bihar where non stop inhabitation had completely destroyed history.

I will reply back to your other posts(about Sanskrit) later.

I didn't say people didn't inhabit south India before 4000 years ago...I clearly said there were tribes residing in those forests...I believe from my observation that civilisation in south started only around 1000 BC when people started immigrating from up north.

 

[scionoftheindus]

I have no idea except to quote the Donald Rumsfield adage that absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. Having said that there is nothing much to argue with what you have stated above except that it bears no direct connection to your earlier point.



Nothing is proved, no one has ever heard the language or translated the language though the chances are that you are probably right in that assertion. I'm not making the argument that Sanskrit was taken out of India etc, I don't know where you are going with that line.

You didn't say boss..poster srinivas was saying that..so I was telling him that when most of India was not even civilised how they could carry sanskrit out of India.
If Sanskrit was already being spoken in India (i mean in south and east )during harappan era then why aren't south Indians not speaking indo European languages?is it not true there are still different Dravidian speaking tribes in Bihar,chattisgarh,maharashtra,Orissa and Nepal?From where did they come there?doesn't it show that dravidians were pushed south by incoming fair skinned tribals?The presence of Dravidian tribes in north and Pakistan itself is a proof that harappans didn't speak Sanskrit.

 

[scionoftheindus]

For sanskrit to be carried out of India the number of Sanskrit speakers should be more than others...if we assume that Dravidian languages were confined only to some forest dwelling tribes ,then there shouldn't be any Dravidian language surviving in cities today.but the fact that Dravidian languages are surviving itself shows that India was once full of dravidian speakers...the immigrants who have come down to south from north during vedic and post vedic period surely must not have been speaking a Dravidian language.Today we can't find any group which has been living in south for hundreds of years speaking any foreign tongue.It shows there were still a large number of dravidians in south into whom vedic People got assimilated .It is very much possible that harappans spoke these Dravidian languages and sanskrit was not even there when they existed.

 

[Srinivas]

I didn't say people didn't inhabit south India before 4000 years ago...I clearly said there were tribes residing in those forests...I believe from my observation that civilisation in south started only around 1000 BC when people started immigrating from up north.

The assertion is not correct, considering there are various sites to excavate !

South is more populated and have culture since long time ago, some people from other region may have spread their culture which might have absorbed into South.

Mahabharata and Ramayana are epics which are older than 1000 B.C and they talk about cities in Srilanka and kings of South.

Even in Mahabharata kings from South fought siding Kauravas.

Let us assume these epics are stories even then there is no need for such an imagination unless there exists an advanced civilization.

All the assertions are based on the fact that some aryan migrants have the right to claim civilization. This assertion itself needs to be validated.

 

[Viny]

For sanskrit to be carried out of India the number of Sanskrit speakers should be more than others...if we assume that Dravidian languages were confined only to some forest dwelling tribes ,then there shouldn't be any Dravidian language surviving in cities today.but the fact that Dravidian languages are surviving itself shows that India was once full of dravidian speakers...the immigrants who have come down to south from north during vedic and post vedic period surely must not have been speaking a Dravidian language.Today we can't find any group which has been living in south for hundreds of years speaking any foreign tongue.It shows there were still a large number of dravidians in south into whom vedic People got assimilated .It is very much possible that harappans spoke these Dravidian languages and sanskrit was not even there when they existed.

Is it hard to digest that there could be two schools of language, one developing in South and one in North, why does one need to push that Arayans or someone else brought in the language in north, when south can have specific langauage developed same could be possible in north too.

As far as fair skin is concerned its the proximity to equator that made the difference in evolution, one doesnt need europeans dna in north to get fair skin.

Ramanyana has some good description of south and given that Bali, Sugriv, Hanuman who where kind of apes where able to have communication means there was ample interaction of north indian language in south india atleast at top levels. At ground level there are good chances of having a mother tongue which might be very specific to dravidan region. This also brings in a situation which shows south was still evolving and there was big region where human beings were like apes. And presence of Ravana (a brahmin by caste) shows that there was interaction at society level and some brahmins and kshtriya's took control over developing human race in south. Chances are that some of the language parts where passed by them, rest where locally developed and hence there is so much difference yet some connectivity.