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Is Sanskrit really an “Indo-European” language?

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Hahahaha
It's shashi Thadani!!!
Gosh!!


You're mistaken!!!
Europeans had run a propaganda to destroy Indian culture and heritage. They were the ones to come up with the Aryan-Dravidan theory.
Gradually as India is developing, more of their theories are being debunked. That's all!!

You can't debunk linguistic similarities.
 
Is it hard to digest that there could be two schools of language, one developing in South and one in North, why does one need to push that Arayans or someone else brought in the language in north, when south can have specific langauage developed same could be possible in north too.

As far as fair skin is concerned its the proximity to equator that made the difference in evolution, one doesnt need europeans dna in north to get fair skin.

Ramanyana has some good description of south and given that Bali, Sugriv, Hanuman who where kind of apes where able to have communication means there was ample interaction of north indian language in south india atleast at top levels. At ground level there are good chances of having a mother tongue which might be very specific to dravidan region. This also brings in a situation which shows south was still evolving and there was big region where human beings were like apes. And presence of Ravana (a brahmin by caste) shows that there was interaction at society level and some brahmins and kshtriya's took control over developing human race in south. Chances are that some of the language parts where passed by them, rest where locally developed and hence there is so much difference yet some connectivity.

There are some twists in current Ramayana compared to original version, Some say Vanara Sena are not monkeys !

And Srilankans are not Rakshasas but people lead by Ravana who opposed Rama.
 
is it not true there are still different Dravidian speaking tribes in Bihar,chattisgarh,maharashtra,Orissa and Nepal?From where did they come there?doesn't it show that dravidians were pushed south by incoming fair skinned tribals?The presence of Dravidian tribes in north and Pakistan itself is a proof that harappans didn't speak Sanskrit.

There is no proof of any "Dravidian" speaking people present in N.India who were pushed down etc. There is no evidence to support that. The presence of Brahui in Pakistan is not evidence of an older presence because all evidence available from the language shows it as a more recent entrant.. There are almost no non-Aryan place & river names in N.India. There is no place in the world where some older names have not survived the arrival of later migrants. It takes a bit of special pleading to believe that this was somehow an exceptional case in India. Nor is there any mention of any such movements either in people of the North or of the people of the South. Would have to be quite an extraordinary case of forgotten memories and the complete wiping out of place & river names, all happening without a trace for that argument to hold.

Very unlikely.
 
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We are supposed to get genetic results of Harappans found in west Haryana. This will put rest to lots of speculation. Maybe they will turn out to be not related to any population in present day south asia which is possibility.
 
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