Indus script early form of Dravidian

[Jit]

I am struck by the similarity of the ideogram for 'trade' (in Mahadevan's case study) to 'trade' in chinese (貿). not exact but very similar formulation...

hopefully our Pakistani cousins don't take it as proof that Mandarin originated from Harappa

 

[manlion]

Hindutavs cant digest the truth - IVC was the ancient Pandian Tamil civilisation, hence the need to deny and mock research works thats contradicts their hidden agenda - foreign origin.

No need to waste time on analysing a dead horse, i.e Vedic Sanskrit - an Indo European language, a language introduced and adopted in India. Vedic Sanskrit shares common features with Persian Avestan and the Baltic , Salvic languages . This linguistic link support the hypothesis that Aryans arrived from the North west in the early second millennium BC

Vedic Sanskrit had no script as it orally transmitted until it was written in Devanagari form , the first Sanskrit religious text were written in Tamil brahmi. As such any attempt to manipulate the IVC script as vedic Sanskrit is a futile endeavour, however with Hindutva propaganda mechanism all is possible

Mahadevan is not alone in his findings on IVC Script to be Tamil,

Parpola

But, none of these very earliest few traces is older than the roots of Tamil. Tamil goes back to Proto-Dravidian, which, in my opinion, can be identified as the language of the thousands of short texts in the Indus script, written during 2600-1700 BCE. There are, of course, different opinions, but many critical scholars agree that even the Rigveda, collected in the Indus Valley about 1000 BCE, has at least half a dozen Dravidian loanwords,” he told a large gathering.

Asko Parpola flags Tamil's links with Indus Valley script - The Hindu

 

[SarthakGanguly]

Hindutavs cant digest the truth - IVC was the ancient Pandian Tamil civilisation, hence the need to deny and mock research works thats contradicts their hidden agenda - foreign origin.

FAIL.

On the contrary this only speaks about a root. And that Vedic Sanskrit is derived from/has roots in Tamil. Either way, this reinforces Hindutva ideology(or whatever you call it)... proving that we are the same.

 

[INDIC]

FAIL.

On the contrary this only speaks about a root. And that Vedic Sanskrit is derived from/has roots in Tamil. Either way, this reinforces Hindutva ideology(or whatever you call it)... proving that we are the same.

But this clown @manlion can't difference between Kannada and Tamil, how you think he will even understand that.

 

[Jit]

Hindutavs cant digest the truth - IVC was the ancient Pandian Tamil civilisation, hence the need to deny and mock research works thats contradicts their hidden agenda - foreign origin.

No need to waste time on analysing a dead horse, i.e Vedic Sanskrit - an Indo European language, a language introduced and adopted in India. Vedic Sanskrit shares common features with Persian Avestan and the Baltic , Salvic languages . This linguistic link support the hypothesis that Aryans arrived from the North west in the early second millennium BC

Vedic Sanskrit had no script as it orally transmitted until it was written in Devanagari form , the first Sanskrit religious text were written in Tamil brahmi. As such any attempt to manipulate the IVC script as vedic Sanskrit is a futile endeavour, however with Hindutva propaganda mechanism all is possible

Mahadevan is not alone in his findings on IVC Script to be Tamil,

Parpola


Asko Parpola flags Tamil's links with Indus Valley script - The Hindu

wow! you are funnier than a barrel of monkeys. In one post you have committed so many mistakes that I really want to award you a nishan-e-something. For example The Vedas were orally transmitted; NOT Sanskrit.

You have now proved you have no idea what Mahadevan actually did or say. Every Tamilian knows the phonetic connection between fish and star - even today a popular term to refer to stars is 'vin meen' meaning literally fish in the sky. Father Hares made that connection in Harappa which Porpola picked up on. It may be news to you, not to Dravidians like me!

what you do not seem to understand is what Mahadevan himself has said (published in Iravathi, the publication named after him I guess) about what this does - it shatters the original Aryan invasion theory. In his own words, he says "the Harappan civilization was in an area larger than current Pakistan....many many townships with thousands of people - Dravidians as we now deduce lived and flourished there; there were two waves of aryans than migrated in were very very small in number, so there was no question of forced invasion. the first group came from up north and did not have a soma tradition and became the 'dasys'. The 2nd one came after some 200 years and brought soma with them and converted the dasyus out of Asura worship and to soma ....

In Iravatham Manadevan's own words "The Sauma-Aryans too would have largely adopted the local culture, but also transforming the cult of the Asura-worshipping Dasas into the Deva-worshipping cult involving the Soma ritual. After the fusion of the two peoples, one group of the unified Proto-Indo-Aryans migrated eastwards into the Swat valley founding the Proto-Rigvedic culture."

So if you point was that teh Vedas came from outside of the subcontinent, you're probably on thin grounds.
If your point is that Hindutva means anti-aryan or ant-dravidian, you are totally off base

 

[INDIC]

Hindutavs cant digest the truth - IVC was the ancient Pandian Tamil civilisation, hence the need to deny and mock research works thats contradicts their hidden agenda - foreign origin.

No need to waste time on analysing a dead horse, i.e Vedic Sanskrit - an Indo European language, a language introduced and adopted in India. Vedic Sanskrit shares common features with Persian Avestan and the Baltic , Salvic languages . This linguistic link support the hypothesis that Aryans arrived from the North west in the early second millennium BC

Vedic Sanskrit had no script as it orally transmitted until it was written in Devanagari form , the first Sanskrit religious text were written in Tamil brahmi. As such any attempt to manipulate the IVC script as vedic Sanskrit is a futile endeavour, however with Hindutva propaganda mechanism all is possible

Mahadevan is not alone in his findings on IVC Script to be Tamil,

Parpola


Asko Parpola flags Tamil's links with Indus Valley script - The Hindu

Only basis of Dravidian link to Indus Valley is Aryan invasion of 1500BC and composition of Vedas in 1200BC. But its already proved Rigveda was composed before 2000BC with the discovery of drying date of Saraswati river. Some historians believe Sapta Sindhu of Rigveda is actually the Indus Valley civilization.

 

[Vinod2070]

IVC was a Vedic civilization and its language was an Aryan one.

The two centuries of "Aryan invasion scholarship" is worth as much as the thousands of years of "scholarship" that considered Earth as flat.

This British created fallacy of "Aryan invasion" that no one ever knew of before the British invaders invented out of thin air, just based on the linguistic affinity of North Indian languages with some European languages and then pulling things out of their a*** to given themselves a civilization they never had, it is on it's last leg.

The Vedic dharmic civilization is 100% Indian and the Aryan languages were in the same regions even 5000 years ago as it is today.

 

[INDIC]

IVC was a Vedic civilization and its language was an Aryan one.

The two centuries of "Aryan invasion scholarship" is worth as much as the thousands of years of "scholarship" that considered Earth as flat.

This British created fallacy of "Aryan invasion" that no one ever knew of before the British invaders invented out of thin air, just based on the linguistic affinity of North Indian languages with some European languages and then pulling things out of their a*** to given themselves a civilization they never had, it is on it's last leg.

The Vedic dharmic civilization is 100% Indian and the Aryan languages were in the same regions even 5000 years ago as it is today.

Some parts of Rigveda can be older than Indus Valley civilization, because the Rigveda itself shows evolution in Sanskrit language and it kept on evolving until Panini standardized Sanskrit. There was only a cultural change and population migration and expansion during Indus Valley civilization to Indo-Gangetic culture, otherwise there is no proof of any new race entering India. The Sapta Sindhu is same as mature phase of Indus Valley civilization.

 

[manlion]

wow! you are funnier than a barrel of monkeys. In one post you have committed so many mistakes that I really want to award you a nishan-e-something. For example The Vedas were orally transmitted; NOT Sanskrit.

Read before commenting, I wrote Vedic Sanskrit and Rig Veda is 'suppose' to be the first work of the Aryan , as there's no other non vedic Sanskrit text available for deciphering , just stick to RV

u have now proved you have no idea what Mahadevan actually did or say. Every Tamilian knows the phonetic connection between fish and star - even today a popular term to refer to stars is 'vin meen' meaning literally fish in the sky. Father Hares made that connection in Harappa which Porpola picked up on. It may be news to you, not to Dravidians like me!

whats your endless drivel ? the Fish - that's why I referred it as Pandyan civilsation, the one who need to read before blabbering is is you not me. You are unable to pick up the subtleties seems like you need spoon feeding on every topic...

what you do not seem to understand is what Mahadevan himself has said (published in Iravathi, the publication named after him I guess) about what this does - it shatters the original Aryan invasion theory. In his own words, he says "the Harappan civilization was in an area larger than current Pakistan....many many townships with thousands of people - Dravidians as we now deduce lived and flourished there; there were two waves of aryans than migrated in were very very small in number, so there was no question of forced invasion. the first group came from up north and did not have a soma tradition and became the 'dasys'. The 2nd one came after some 200 years and brought soma with them and converted the dasyus out of Asura worship and to soma ..

irrelevant and unverifiable stuff .. just comment on the script ..

So if you point was that teh Vedas came from outside of the subcontinent, you're probably on thin grounds.
If your point is that Hindutva means anti-aryan or ant-dravidian, you are totally off base

The Vedic gods s were not native to IVC and I don't need to elaborate further on that, as I have done umpteen times, before ..

 

[Vinod2070]

Some parts of Rigveda can be older than Indus Valley civilization, because the Rigveda itself shows evolution in Sanskrit language and it kept on evolving until Panini standardized Sanskrit. There was only a cultural change and population migration and expansion during Indus Valley civilization to Indo-Gangetic culture, otherwise there is no proof of any new race entering India. The Sapta Sindhu is same as mature phase of Indus Valley civilization.

That is true. The point is they are both in the same area and the same period.

There is a tremendous amount of gymnastics involved in keeping the two separate without any factual basis at all.

 

[SarthakGanguly]

Hindutavs cant digest the truth - IVC was the ancient Pandian Tamil civilisation, hence the need to deny and mock research works thats contradicts their hidden agenda - foreign origin.

No need to waste time on analysing a dead horse, i.e Vedic Sanskrit - an Indo European language, a language introduced and adopted in India. Vedic Sanskrit shares common features with Persian Avestan and the Baltic , Salvic languages . This linguistic link support the hypothesis that Aryans arrived from the North west in the early second millennium BC

Vedic Sanskrit had no script as it orally transmitted until it was written in Devanagari form , the first Sanskrit religious text were written in Tamil brahmi. As such any attempt to manipulate the IVC script as vedic Sanskrit is a futile endeavour, however with Hindutva propaganda mechanism all is possible

Mahadevan is not alone in his findings on IVC Script to be Tamil,

Parpola


Asko Parpola flags Tamil's links with Indus Valley script - The Hindu

Make up your mind. Sanskrit is derived from Tamil? Or not? If it is, then there can be no foreign origin of Sanskrit. Unless Tamilians themselves came from somewhere else.

 

[INDIC]

That is true. The point is they are both in the same area and the same period.

There is a tremendous amount of gymnastics involved in keeping the two separate without any factual basis at all.

Rigveda is a literary record and Indus Valley civilization is the acheaeological record of Sapta Sindhu which the colonial historian and their marxist apologists wants to divide to fit in their favorite Aryan-Dravidian theory. The colonial crap was framed without taking any facts particularly the concept of the language evolution. How can Sanskrit evolve in such a small time. Infact, phonology of Sanskrit is even quite different from Persian and only unique to North Indian languages.

I read that all of IVC never ended in 1900BC but many sites continued to flourished until 1000BC. Although after the drying of mightly Ghaggar-Hakra(Rigvedic Saraswati which is enough to prove Rigveda is older than 2000BC), lot of sites were abandoned around Indus Valley and saw the 3-4 fold increase in the Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh during the same period. The study on the bone fragments shows no new race entered India.

 

[Vinod2070]

Rigveda is a literary record and Indus Valley civilization is the acheaeological record of Sapta Sindhu which the colonial historian and their marxist apologists wants to divide to fit in their favorite Aryan-Dravidian theory. The colonial crap was framed without taking any facts particularly the concept of the language evolution. How can Sanskrit evolve in such a small time. Infact, phonology of Sanskrit is even quite different from Persian and only unique to North Indian languages.

I read that all of IVC never ended in 1900BC but many sites continued to flourished until 1000BC. Although after the drying of mightly Ghaggar-Hakra(Rigvedic Saraswati which is enough to prove Rigveda is older than 2000BC), lot of sites were abandoned around Indus Valley and saw the 3-4 fold increase in the Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh during the same period. The study on the bone fragments shows no new race entered India.

The leftists always want to destroy the cultural heritage of any place. In this case the leftist sepoys found a common cause with what normally is their mortal enemy.

Some Western colonial minded racist historians...

Anyway they are on their last leg now. Their lies never had any basis.

People like the OP are clutching at straws.

The Indo Aryan languages were in the same regions 3000-4000 years back as they are now. Puranas also prove the same thing.

 

[Vinod2070]

include ancient Persians, they still retain their Dravidian roots even after Aryanisation e.g their enemies were Devas not Asuras , Indian Aryan enemies were Asuras i.e Dravidians

Don't make a fool of yourself by advertizing your ignorance.

Asura were not Dravidians. Persian Aryans were just a different branch of Aryans from the Rigvedic Aryans (the Purus) who were enemies of each other. So they adapted each others' heroes as villains and vice versa.

In fact, the earliest Rigvedic verses don't have a negative connotations for the Asuras.

 

[INDIC]

Make up your mind. Sanskrit is derived from Tamil? Or not? If it is, then there can be no foreign origin of Sanskrit. Unless Tamilians themselves came from somewhere else.

oh minion is saying Sanskrit is native to India, this clown @manlion should stop calling Sanskrit as a language outside of India.