Hamza913
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Don't know much about that. So it is akin to Pakistan laying claim over Mughal Empire because some areas of the Mughals fall in present day Pak?
No, because the Mughals also existed in Pakistan prior to entering Hindustan. The Mughals were also Muslim, spoke Urdu, ate Qeema and wore Shalwar Kameez. They belong to the Muslims of Hindustan and Pakistan, since these people are most similar to them culturally and are descended from them. Shah Jahan and Akbar (two of the most prominent Mughal rulers, the latter of which can be argued as the true founder of the Mughals) also came from Pakistan. Lahore was also one of the largest cities in the Mughal Empire, and has more Mughal architecture than Delhi itself.
The Mughals themselves had predominantly Eurasian ancestry. Just look at this map and see who has more affinity to them, you or us:
I don't think India exclusively claims the "entire" IVC. If it does, then obviously it is wrong.
A lot of Hindustanis do. I've had numerous arguments in Quora and the cancer that is the YouTube comment section over this, the argument literally goes along the lines of "Pakistan existed as a nation in 1947, therefore, any history prior to that belongs to Hindustan". It's so stupid my head hurts just listening to them. Some of them are at least intelligent enough to give us the Islamic history of the region, but that's about it.
Anyway, if someone from north-west Hindustan or a Hindustani of Pakistani ancestry wants to claim IVC, they can go ahead. Anyone else can only claim IVC on the basis of almost everyone alive today being descended from these early people (read previous posts for more info, almost all humans alive today have common ancestry from 2000-3000 years ago).