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India will become ‘Akhand Bharat’ in 10-15 years: RSS chief

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RSS guy uses the word Bharat, he is not original Hindustani. He is descendant of Scythians who arrived between 600 BCE to 600 CE in Vedic Hindustan which had begun about 1500 BCE. Its area includes today's Afghanistan/Pakistan.

The Aryans came into the Indian Subcontinent only around 1000 BC. Vedic Hindustan developed much later. Below quoted section is from an article on the Dalit and Shudra support website velivada.com :

The dominance or otherwise is only dictated by the ruling class culture, which since the last 3,000 years or so happens to be the Aryan culture. The highly advanced pre-Dravidian and Dravidian cultures were driven into the hills and forests-the last surviving examples of them being the tribal of India. (1988:5)​

And nothing much is not known about the belief system of the Indus Valley Civilization.
 
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The Aryans came into the Indian Subcontinent only around 1000 BC. Vedic Hindustan developed much later. Below quoted section is from an article on the Dalit and Shudra support website velivada.com :

And nothing much is not known about the belief system of the Indus Valley Civilization.
Classical Vedic Hindustan is between 1500 CE - 800 CE, some say upto 600 BCE. Thus, it existed by the decline of Indus civilization [3300 -1300 BCE]. In the classical Veda system, the Kshatriya Deva [who were not Aryan] is the top governing caste. Aryans were the Brahman caste.

It is likely the new system of caste governance along with Aryan Sanskrit and Veda caused the decline, as nobody can read Indus script. Could have happened similar to how Egyptians stopped reading hieroglyphs with the rise of Christianity.

My guess is tribals are among natives whose ancestry must be tens of thousands of years old. The vast majority of us have native blood as well. Origin of Dravidian isn't clear. Some say they came from East Africa who mixed with people from today's Iran. This is one hypothesis: " The Elamo-Dravidian language family is a hypothesised language family that links the Dravidian languages of Southern India to the extinct Elamite language of ancient Elam (present-day southwestern Iran). Linguist David McAlpin has been a chief proponent of the Elamo-Dravidian hypothesis.[1] The hypothesis has gained attention in academic circles, but has been subject to serious criticism by linguists, and remains only one of several scenarios for the origins of the Dravidian languages.[note 1] Elamite is generally accepted by scholars to be a language isolate, unrelated to any other known language.[3] ... According to David McAlpin, the Dravidian languages were brought to India by immigration into India from Elam, located in present-day southwestern Iran.[7][6] "
 
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Classical Vedic Hindustan is between 1500 CE - 800 CE, some say upto 600 BCE. Thus, it existed by the decline of Indus civilization [3300 -1300 BCE].

Wait, you are saying IVC intersected with Hinduism for 200 years ? What happened to the IVC then ?

Aryans were the Brahman caste.

Well, the Aryans made themselves the Brahman caste in the new system they set up in India.
 
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Wait, you are saying IVC intersected with Hinduism for 200 years ? What happened to the IVC then ?



Well, the Aryans made themselves the Brahman caste in the new system they set up in India.
IVC went through acculturation and transitioned to the new Vedic order over 3 to 4 centuries. I don't think it was a military invasion like the Spaniards taking over South America.

Brahmans were the priests, not the rulers, and the religion was not called Hinduism. This is an English word which has a lot of later additions and cultural baggage.

On the Kshatriya Deva side the faith is known to me as Vihari or Bihari. Vihar is a classical Vedic word. And, to the Aryan Brahmans, the faith was known as Sanatan Dharm.

I retain the original Bihari monotheist faith, but Sanatan Dharm's meaning got corrupted with idolatry, although it was originally monotheist.

Elements of the culture, words, and language of IVC very likely exists to this day as it must have become a substratum in the dominant Vedic environment.
'It's an indigenous language that contributes words or parts of speech to the language of an invading people who have imposed their language on the indigenous people.'
 
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Please share his actual image, not the fake images going around. His original form -
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IVC went through acculturation and transitioned to the new Vedic order over 3 to 4 centuries. I don't think it was a military invasion like the Spaniards taking over South America.

Why would the the IVC defer to the inferior Aryans unless the Aryans did military conquest and massacre ?
 
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Why would the the IVC defer to the inferior Aryans unless the Aryans did military conquest and massacre ?
Don't project your hostility and bias against Aryans to the people of IVC.

Most Aryans migrated out of Southern Russian plains and replaced many indigenous languages of Europe. Compared to Western and Central Europe, Aryans are a small number in India. Middle East has significant Aryan migration as well, but there they adopted the Semitic languages.

But, only in India, Veda developed. That is because the Sharif descendants of Prophet Ibrahim and Kethura arrived in India who became the Vedic Kshatriya Deva [Sharif] caste. Aryans acquired the meaning of Noble in India (probably in Iran as well) from the Sharif or Deva.

"Genesis 25:6 relates that Abraham sent the sons of Keturah away from Isaac “eastward, to the land of the East.” He told them: Go as far eastward as you can, so you will not be burnt by the burning coal of Isaac"
 
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