RIP Pak LAW
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If we have generals like bajwa than anything is possible @PanzerKiel
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RSS guy uses the word Bharat, he is not original Hindustani. He is descendant of Scythians who arrived between 600 BCE to 600 CE in Vedic Hindustan which had begun about 1500 BCE. Its area includes today's Afghanistan/Pakistan.
And nothing much is not known about the belief system of the Indus Valley Civilization.The dominance or otherwise is only dictated by the ruling class culture, which since the last 3,000 years or so happens to be the Aryan culture. The highly advanced pre-Dravidian and Dravidian cultures were driven into the hills and forests-the last surviving examples of them being the tribal of India. (1988:5)
Classical Vedic Hindustan is between 1500 CE - 800 CE, some say upto 600 BCE. Thus, it existed by the decline of Indus civilization [3300 -1300 BCE]. In the classical Veda system, the Kshatriya Deva [who were not Aryan] is the top governing caste. Aryans were the Brahman caste.The Aryans came into the Indian Subcontinent only around 1000 BC. Vedic Hindustan developed much later. Below quoted section is from an article on the Dalit and Shudra support website velivada.com :
And nothing much is not known about the belief system of the Indus Valley Civilization.
Classical Vedic Hindustan is between 1500 CE - 800 CE, some say upto 600 BCE. Thus, it existed by the decline of Indus civilization [3300 -1300 BCE].
Aryans were the Brahman caste.
IVC went through acculturation and transitioned to the new Vedic order over 3 to 4 centuries. I don't think it was a military invasion like the Spaniards taking over South America.Wait, you are saying IVC intersected with Hinduism for 200 years ? What happened to the IVC then ?
Well, the Aryans made themselves the Brahman caste in the new system they set up in India.
IVC went through acculturation and transitioned to the new Vedic order over 3 to 4 centuries. I don't think it was a military invasion like the Spaniards taking over South America.
Don't project your hostility and bias against Aryans to the people of IVC.Why would the the IVC defer to the inferior Aryans unless the Aryans did military conquest and massacre ?