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how much of Urdu is Sanskrit based and persian based?

The relationship was between Old Indo-Aryan and Avestan; some Vedic hymns need to be read with a knowledge of Avestan to make sense, some of the Gathas need to be read with a knowledge of Old Indo-Aryan to make sense.


Except that the mandala bearing striking similarity to Avestan is the 8th mandala, which no one argues is older than the family mandalas. That's a problem when the argument is that Avestan & "Old Indo-Aryan" had a relationship. Difficult to then understand why it does not show up in the oldest bits of the Rg Veda & instead shows up somewhere in the middle. Nothing here is cut & dry.
 
"The Sanskrit project was initiated by the previous government. They had their own priorities. The project was so-so. How many people really speak Sanskrit in India?" said Ramjanam Sharma, head of languages at the National Council of Educational Research and Training, a government body that designs school curriculums. Defending the decision to cut the funding, he said it was not appropriate for schools to teach children how to converse in Sanskrit.

Summer Camps Revive India's Ancient Sanskrit
 
<sigh>

The original Procrustean logic.

No descendants, nor anything that may remotely be considered to be an ancestor. But lots of languages with Sanskrit loan words.

Think of these as loan words from a common ancestor of Sanskrit and the target language.

I would not call them loanwords, generally languages tend to retain the terms used for very common objects. But modifications do happen, over time.

You can in fact say it is the same as Sanskrit.

You can in fact do nothing of the kind. The language as codified by Panini was far from Avestan. Avestan and Old Indo-Aryan were mutually comprehensible to a degree. Panini's codified, stabilised version was far from the free-flowing, somewhat unorthodox version of the language, the kind to be found in the Vedas.
 
What does it mean, Sanskrit >>> Persian?

Regarding RazPak's comment, Old Indo-Aryan and Avestan may have both derived from a yet older form called Indo-Iranian. Not Sanskrit, strictly; the older, archaic form that Panini codified, so, from Old Indo-Aryan into Sanskrit. The relationship was between Old Indo-Aryan and Avestan; some Vedic hymns need to be read with a knowledge of Avestan to make sense, some of the Gathas need to be read with a knowledge of Old Indo-Aryan to make sense.



Please list one hundred Arabic words in Persian.

Not true...infact exactly the opposite of this is true...
Scholars used sanskrit to decode avestan

Full text of "An Avesta grammar in comparison with Sanskrit"
 
Except that the mandala bearing striking similarity to Avestan is the 8th mandala, which no one argues is older than the family mandalas. That's a problem when the argument is that Avestan & "Old Indo-Aryan" had a relationship. Difficult to then understand why it does not show up in the oldest bits of the Rg Veda & instead shows up somewhere in the middle. Nothing here is cut & dry.


My own reconstruction is based on the evident differences between various Indo-Aryan speaking tribes and their use of the language. It is recorded clearly that certain northern tribes, considered well within the bounds of kinship and affinity, slowly veered off into 'mlechha' status, and their language takes on greater and greater distance from the mainstream. I believe that the differences between verses and the language of the verses is due to the different versions of the language already spread out and distinguishable.
 
The point that I wanted to make was that I can adjust my Urdu to a Hindi speaker, just as well as I can to Persian, Arabic, or Turkish speaker.

Urdu is a language to defeat barriers and was used by soldiers of various backgrounds to communicate with each other.

And of course, it sidelines accents.

Now, If you want to talk about the standardized Urdu that is taught in Islamabad, then that is a whole different issue of it's own.
 
Unfortuntely due to cable tv, today's Pakistanis have drifted away from Urdu and true Islam.

Persian and Arabic words have been replaced with hindi.

e.g. we used to say 'Ibtida' today children says 'shoroat' there are numerous such examples.

Today, we can conveniently say that Pakistan's national language is Hindi and not Urdu any more.

Shuruaat is perfectly fine Urdu, and used in different contexts. The Hindi equivalent for Ibtida would be udhghatan.

Ibtida is equal to inaugurate, shuruaat is "begin". Different contexts, but Urdu nonetheless.
 
Same way,having sanskirt words in urdu,does not make us Indian.

Even the fact that urdu is originated from present day central India doesn't make you Indian..You are british/Pakistani..Dont be so insecure.
 
^^ Actually Urdu has nothing of it own it borrow words from, Persian/Arabic/Turkish/English/ and now with advent of cable tv we can count Sankskrit too.

A simple example:

'Sun'
Arabic - Shams
Persian - Aftab
Hindi - Suraj

'moon'
Arabic - Qamar
Persian - Mahtab
Hindi - Chand

which one do you keep in your voc.

Again Suraj is fine Urdu - Sanskritized Hindi would be Surya or Moon would be Shashi.
 
Indian songs are pure urdu songs- except some bazaro item songs which can be classified as hindi-

Urdu is a shaista zuban- hindi is abay- tere to- tere ma k- band baja di- fato- kuch tofani kertay hein bla and vulgar gangster sh!t-
 
Shuruaat is perfectly fine Urdu, and used in different contexts. The Hindi equivalent for Ibtida would be udhghatan.

Ibtida is equal to inaugurate, shuruaat is "begin". Different contexts, but Urdu nonetheless.

Ibtida means both "first" and "starting from"
 
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