Bang Galore
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Only one reference talks about flat noses; the reference to dark skin is in various places as noted in my post and the referenced text.
You chose to make that reference,now you say it is only a single reference? Shoot & scoot?
The dark skin reference is disputed widely.
Agastya is a proper Tamil legend.
So what? Means nothing.
And Periyar used Vedic texts themselves as proof of the militaristic nature of the Vedic elite.
No more relevant than Jawaharlal Nehru's version of Indian history. Periyar lived in different time & his agenda was a driving force in his beliefs. In any case, since you keep talking about Tamilians, may I point out that they are but one part of a larger Dravidian language speaking people. No one else has even the remotest interpretation that they have, largely because the Dravidian identity was not as stressed & because political identity was not based on it.
Migration is often heralded by invasion. Already gave the Rig Vedic references to dark skin.
More of the same.
That's your interpretation. Other scholars have different interpretations. You can accuse them of having an agenda, but the same is true of you -- more so, I dare say.
Not my interpretation alone. As for my having an agenda (& more so...whatever that means)you can say whatever you want, I don't particularly care for certificates.
Again, the similarities between Vedic and Tamil legends of Agastya suggest they refer to the same event. Now you will say the Tamils themselves do not know how to interpret their own legends.
No, I say that you do not know and you are merely latching on to anything that might help your hypothesis.
It means that any Vedic influence outside of those regions was a foreign imposition. Was it done through conquest or "flower power"?
Amalgamation is not an imposition even if amalgamations seem a difficult idea for some to comprehend.
Oh wait. The Vedic texts themselves tell us that the Vedic gods brought "enlightenment" upon their enemies through conquest. Granted, many of these enemies were in the north, but Vedic culture did find its way to the south eventually. Did the Vedic gods suddenly have a change of heart and change tack to flower power when bringing "enlightenment" to the south?
You are simply reading a version of the Rg veda that is now widely disputed. Absence of evidence (of a forced southern conquest) cannot by any stretch be presumed as proof.
Are you saying the Tamils had no culture prior to "enlightenment" by Vedic culture? Is all the talk of ancient Dravidian cultures a fabricated myth?
Again proof.... anyone can claim anything.
As a group, south Indians have darker skin than northerners.
Pointless. There are no "groups" for you to extrapolate & draw a conclusion. South Indians do not have a similar look and most are not much darker than the average North Indian. Some North Indians are fairer as are some South Indians. This racist theory has long been discredited. First flat noses & then this generalisation.
As for your particular interpretation, I already responded above. You are welcome to deny anything you like, but that won't stop established scholars from doing their work.
Amusing when you seem to think that only your argument is agreed to by "established scholars". You too are welcome to believe whatever you want....
Mine, and the scholars', passes the test of simplicity. For example, I explained about the legend of Agastya in the previous post.
Yours does not and the Rg veda itself s proof enough. Conjectures are merely that; conjectures.
Now you are seeking refuge in a physical massive Aryan migration into the subcontinent. That particular debate is irrelevant to this discussion.
Regardless of whether the Aryan tribes were indigenous to north India or not, the debate here is about the infusion of northern Vedic culture into southern Dravidian culture.
I seek refuge in nothing. It is you who selectively quote from "scholars" &"nationalists", seeming to forget that they had other views too, none of which are helpful to you. If the "Aryans" were "native", why do you assume that they waited till they came up with the vedas to do the "invasion" of the south? Those arguments are intrinsically connected. Can't argue bits & pieces like the basic crux of the "Aryan Invasion Theory", primarily that of an invasion has been discredited but that the argument that they still invaded South India is acceptable and using for that the very same"proofs" which are discredited.