The question should be, is election the answer?
Let us compare with other Muslim countries. Take for example pakistan. Now, it is quite documented that south asian nations have poverty levels where 30-40% population lives below $1.25/day. Didn't Pakistan and India hold hundreds of elections in central and divisional level since its inception? Was the result satisfactory till now? South Asia is still plagued by poverty.
Now compare it with GCC nations (including bahrain). In 1970, Saudi's GDP was only $7 billion - Same as Pakistan. Now Saudi has a GDP/capita of $20000+ with $400 billion GDP.
Both Saudi and Pakistan has had pro-US leaders. Both of them had "puppets" (in conventional terminology). Who benefited?
Whereas Saudi's GDP, standard of living and wealth multiplied by a hundred times in this 40 years, Pakistan still remains a low-income nation DESPITE holding elections and the "democracy". Both started from the SAME position in 1970.
Election, democracy, dictatorship etc. requires a suitable mentality of the nation in question. Western mentality is suited to it. This does not mean that GCC mentality would also be suited to democracy. When Prophet Mohammed started preaching his religion, according to some historians, if it were other races people would start questioning philosophical aspects of the religion. But this did not happen in this case because Arabs are traditionally faithful to their leaders. Maybe GCC is more suited to kingdom than democracy? Evidence and past record suggests this to be the case!
Edit: It turns out Pakistan had double the GDP of Saudi in 1970 ($10 billion) compared to Saudi's $5 billion......