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Did decline of major indian empires played major factor in Islamic invasion and why?

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No misconception of most of Muslims of subcontinent, Islam introduced lots earlier than that incident, in fact Islam was introduced in the subcontinent within the life of our holy Prophet (PBUH) and Muhammad Ibn qasim came lot later in subcontinent @AfrazulMandal
I know. I said significant.
 
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You are a Muslim today most probably because of that Jazya itself. Because your ancestors could not handle added pressure of a tax and converted.
You hate what you are... Projection at his finest...
If a Muslim has to choose btw (His religious "Taxes" + State Taxes) and Jizya... They will be no "Jizya" slot left...
 
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Jizya was discriminatory plain and simple. Stop trying to justify it.
Do you call for Discrimination every time you pay your taxes?
But what even more interesting is that even after that time Jews and Christians NEVER made it a subject of discrimination... But only in today era with the Anti-Muslim wave led by Atheist/Polytheist or Wannabe Christians who believe that celebrating Christmas make them one...

Even more interesting is that EVERY theocratic syst Also USED jizya... whatever the Christians with the Jews and Muslims or the Jews with Polytheists...

And if you say... but look at Christian or Jewish countries, they don't do that... Just a reminder THAT NO country on earth is ruled by Christianity neither Judaism... but Secular/Agnostic rules/laws/sys... Same goes for Muslim countries... They are ruled by a combo of what their Secular/Liberal Master left to them and some laws of Sharia...

I will no go into depth on What was asked of Jews/Christians under Islamic ruling... you will mostly endup with your jugular popping out of frustration... for being with such lack of Knowledge... But here a little spoiler... Jews&Chritians, ONLY paid if they could (Poor or with limited money are exempted of it) and only the Adult male... That tax incorporate the Full protection of the state... The Rule to never be used as a Soldier in any Muslim war... and To choose under which law you want to be judged... The Torah for the Jews and the Bible for the Christians...
And the List goes on... but maybe this one will give you the last nail in the coffin... The equivalence of the Jizya... was "Symbolic"...

So... now you can keep swimming on your " They converted because of it or so and so..." No... the people of your continent did so... to get away from your Unequal/racist cast system... Where your blood put you in a cage that you will forever dwell in... whatever you may do or wish...
 
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some propagandist say that muslims discriminated with word ''kaffir''

but then again, there was also a word used ''aneran'' by persians to discriminate against non zoroasterians, hindus probably used the word mleccha or probably another word to denote non believing buddhists and non hindus, buddhists also did the same thing, the christians declared non abrahamic faiths as pagan, the jews declared everyone as non semite/gentile so on and so forth.

regards
 
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It is Gengis khan which made it possible for Islamic and British rulers to easily conquer Indian regions.

You can check the civilizations all around the globe the civilizations from Roman, Greek, Persian, Egyptian are all wiped out but India struggled and survived.



Whether invasions or migrations of these small regions of Bharat, before Christianity and Islam, they assimilated and Indianized themselves when the regrouping and back pressure came. Bharat might have lost some regions during the invasions but has regained every region except during partition.

Aryan invasion is a myth propagated by British.

India is only place out of all IE speaking regions where these steppe invaders didnt assimilate all of native population. Resulting in 80% of modern Indians essentially being low caste, apart from language imposition.

It likely had to do with process starting late in India, probably 500BC. While in so called north west aka Pakistan it started in 1000BC. Especially in NW Pakistan. By 500BC mainland India had to many habitants owning it to ideal condition for human living.
 
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Never said zakat is tax.


We should never be defensive about conversions.
Yes, mass.conversions happened and the low caste conversion theory to escape discrimination does not hold. There are too many low caste people who resist conversion.

But the reason for the mass conversions is simple. The hindus fought against Islam. Period. As per rules, Muslims respectfully gave them options - accept Islam or leave/face the consequences. Many did. Our beloved Rasool SAW did the same. This is sunnat. We have nothing to be ashamed of. In fact those who were forcefully converted - their next generation are grateful for allowing them to leave pagan ways. This is His will. Peace.


There is nothing called Hinduism. There is nothing called Hindus. Let's call them bhakts and Terrorists.

Let's not.
Stop embarrassing us; display these flights of fancy in private, please.

Oh look, the mother of all ironies.


Yes, we cannot imagine our own maps, but to clearly under the true extent of any empire, we need to compare with today's boundaries. And they are not imaginations, there are various sources, local to the land and greek as well that tell us of the extent of this empire, based on which maps are made. These maps, may not be entirely accurate but they do convey a rough idea of the borders.

Local to the land? Greek as well? I thought I had earned my degree; apparently not.

What, as a matter of curiousity and prurience, are your sources? Local to the land as well as Greek?

The point precisely was that only a rough idea can be conveyed of the borders. It cannot be said to be as accurate as the pretentious YouTube and other maps that are floating around.

India is only place out of all IE speaking regions where these steppe invaders didnt assimilate all of native population. Resulting in 80% of modern Indians essentially being low caste, apart from language imposition.

It likely had to do with process starting late in India, probably 500BC. While in so called north west aka Pakistan it started in 1000BC. Especially in NW Pakistan. By 500BC mainland India had to many habitants owning it to ideal condition for human living.

I don't intervene unless there is a good academic reason to do so. There is such a reason here. Your opening paragraph is hopelessly inaccurate. Please research Greece, Italy and Spain, for starters; we can get to northern Europe later. These are not comprehensive, or even representative, but they do give us a clue.

If anything, the second paragraph is even more appallingly inaccurate. Please look up the date of the Buddha, the region where he was born, lived and preached. It is possibly a waste of time to refer you to the Janapadas.

But this is PDF after all.
 
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I don't intervene unless there is a good academic reason to do so. There is such a reason here. Your opening paragraph is hopelessly inaccurate. Please research Greece, Italy and Spain, for starters; we can get to northern Europe later. These are not comprehensive, or even representative, but they do give us a clue.

If anything, the second paragraph is even more appallingly inaccurate. Please look up the date of the Buddha, the region where he was born, lived and preached. It is possibly a waste of time to refer you to the Janapadas.

But this is PDF after all.

I don't know what Spain and Italy have to do with IE assimilation as they don't have racial caste system. Spain have minority of basques who are genetically identical to IE speakers of Spain. Balochistan have brahui and baloch who are again same despite language differences. Only when one cross indus we start to see racial differences among population despite living in same village and speaking same language.

And deep in India like UP/Bihar 80% of population was not assimilated at all.
 
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I don't know what Spain and Italy have to do with IE assimilation as they don't have racial caste system.


It may help to distinguish between racist system and caste system; the two are not identical. It may also help to look up the facts. The statement above is again wrong.


Spain have minority of basques who are genetically identical to IE speakers of Spain. Balochistan have brahui and baloch who are again same despite language differences. Only when one cross indus we start to see racial differences among population despite living in same village and speaking same language.

And deep in India like UP/Bihar 80% of population was not assimilated at all.

If you mean genetic differences, that too is incorrect.

We seem to be having difficulty coping with similar genetic profiles speaking different languages; with widely differing genetic profiles speaking the same language; most of all, with the differences between race and genetic profile. In the case of the last two, these are not exchangeable concepts.

Did we look up the Janapada period, and did we notice their characteristics, in terms of the date lines that seem to be under discussion?

It is not intended to hurt your feelings, but you do seem to be out of your depth on this specific issue. However, please feel free to ignore this evaluation and please feel quite free to present your thoughts ignoring all irrelevant chatter.
 
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Nah, they were just resilient



This is actually correct.

But, i must say it is not just the RSS which sees the Turkic invasion as an Islamic invasion but most Pakistanis too see it that way especially the more religious types.

I would say that only a fringe group in Pakistan believes it, while majority of Indians, especially RSS types 100% believe it.
 
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Rashtrakutas, gurajara pratihara, pala empires were major players in the indian history shortly before the ghaurid invasion. But we see that during ghaurid invasions most of these empires had already vanished and indian subcontinent was being ruled by little kingdoms etc.

Arab chronicles before indian invasion reference Rashtrakutas as one of the biggest powers alog with byzantine, china and arabs, but we see that during the ghaurid invasion the entire geopolitical situation in india had crumbled into petty kingdoms. Is this fact or something whic needs to be proven? and if its a fact then what caused the decline of these major indian empires all of a sudden?

regards
In the old days any Nation, Kingdom, or Empire that appeared to be weak was attacked. There was this saying, " Sun never goes down on the Roman Empire." Well it finally did, Rome was sacked by the savages when it was at its weakest.

That was the way it was for thousands of years. It still is the same way to some extent these days.
 
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I would say that only a fringe group in Pakistan believes it, while majority of Indians, especially RSS types 100% believe it.

I would say the complete opposite. Most Pakistanis always refer to the rule as Muslims rule- " Muslims ruled India for so and so years".

RSS types are not the majority in India.
 
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I would say the complete opposite. Most Pakistanis always refer to the rule as Muslims rule- " Muslims ruled India for so and so years".

RSS types are not the majority in India.

India is always fighting its lost battles. What is happaning in Kashmir right now is simply once again it is trying to win battle it lost hundreds of years ago. Modi is just trying to stick it to the Muslims.
 
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