roadrunner
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I was expecting this rationale from you. And frankly it is just too simplistic and immature.
60 years is a long period to set your house in order. It is exactly the sort of closeted mindset which tries to benchmark yourself just against your neighbor that we need to get away from.
Both India and Pakistan have done badly on education and I take no solace from the fact that we are better off than Pakistan. We did not do good enough and that is all that matters. We need to do far better to compete in the 21st century. Same goes for Pakistan.
It is up to Pakistanis to decide if they have done the best they could, given all the constraints.
So no rationale counter argument to the example I presented.
No link or proof to your theory that Indian Muslims had a lower literacy "base" in 1947 than other religious groups in India.
No link or proof that Pakistan's Hindu community has greatly been reduced since 1947.
ALRIGHT THEN! You have presented absolutely no proof of anything of what you say, throughout this entire thread. Until you do, there's no point in continuing this circular discussion, because you are presenting a false argument.
Same as above. You need to prove that this constitutes discrimination and they are falling behind others over a period.
Why do you not get this? You're the one who is suggesting that Indian Muslims had a lower prior base, not me! Therefore you present the evidence that their base was lower.
My evidence that Indian Muslims are discriminated against in the field of primary education is that 1) Less primary schools are built in Muslim dense areas of India as per the newspaper article i presented previously and 2) Indian Muslims have the lowest literacy rate of any Indian religious community. Now this is reasonable evidence that Indian Muslims are being discriminated against. What have you presented to explain why less primary schools are built in Muslim dense areas of India, or why Indian Muslims have a lower literacy than other religious groups? Absolutely nothing is the answer.
The link proves that Muslims can surpass the other communities in India in education if they really strive to do that. There are many examples in India including Gujarat.
The link or the table you've presented shows this. That in Muslim dense areas, Muslims have a lower literacy than Hindus. In Hindu dense areas, Muslim literacy SURPASSES Hindu literacy.
This suggests to me, that Indian Muslims are more hard working than Indian Hindus, but that because those Muslim densen areas have less primary education, the overall Muslim literacy rate is lower than Hindus.
You have proved this with your link.
Many UP Muslims are really regressive like your NWFP folks. They won't give their kids polio drops again like your NWFP folks, believing in all sorts of conspiracy theories. They will take some time to progress. And drag down the community for some more time.
NWFP has a 50% literacy. Sindh has a 50% literacy. In this case, is Sindh regressive and refusing polio drops also? If not then this argument of yours also falls flat on its face like every single other argument of yours in this thread. One can quote examples of Indian Hindu religious illiteracy all night if one wanted to. One example is shown in the picture below. Does this mean that when Sai baba does his regressive pulling golden eggs from his belly illusion, or generating a hareem or pure men, that Haryana is also a regressive community because some people fall for his madness?
You blaming this on culture, when Indian papers admit that Muslim dense areas of India do not get the funding for primary schools, and your very own table shows that Muslim dense regions do not get as much primary education as Hindu dense areas is evidence of clear discrimination and an anti Muslim mindset..all these factors will not get you, as Indians far when Indian Muslims divide India into yet further pieces.
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