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The speed of light in the sacred hindu texts....

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India did not exist as a country prior to 1947. Even Churchill admitted India was no more a country as the equator.

However India has a history, and Pakistan has a separate history. Much of what you claim as Indian history is actually Pakistani history. The Rig Veda was written in Pakistan and therefore is part of Pakistani history. You can claim the book or worship it all you want, but it is an ancient Pakistani authored book.

:cheesy: Churchill admitted that India did not exist as a country! Did he admit that Pakistan existed as a country? Does he have to admit that a country existed for it to be eligible? Is it a rule for UN membership?

He admitted some other things that may not be palatable to you (I told that to you earlier). Why is he a yardstick to go by!

Rigveda is as Pakistani as the Greco-Romam empire is Turkish or as the ancient Jewish history is Arab: Zilch.
 
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Actually there was no INDIA.

Why don't you convince the thousands of historians about this?

There has been an "India" since millenia.

Who is playing with words, mate? You pounced on the guy for saying "ancient Pakistan", which obviously meant the geographical location of Pakistan in ancient times (which was never really called INDIA).

I "pounced" on him for his logic, which you have not addressed.

You can keep your side of the history but why poach from ours?

Who's poaching? Your history is as much our's as our's is your's.

But the term/idea "Pakistan" is very recent as compared to the term/idea India.

How can you label something "Pakistani" when "Pakistan" was not ven a thought back then?
 
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Actually there was no INDIA.

Who is playing with words, mate? You pounced on the guy for saying "ancient Pakistan", which obviously meant the geographical location of Pakistan in ancient times (which was never really called INDIA).

You can keep your side of the history but why poach from ours?

Asim, you guys sometimes say that Pakistan was never called India and sometimes that Pakistan was the real India!

Why don't you make up your mind once and for all?

And you can read the post above to see why "poach" the history. We are talking about Pre-Islamic history. Pre-invasions, pre-any idea of division because the people converted to a different religion and millions of people had to leave the land of their ancestors.

As I said, Turks don't inherit Greco-Roman history just because they are settled in that land now. Same applies here. Most of you guys at least claim to be from all over the place except natives. Even if it is a lie, they lose all claim to the history and civilization of the land automatically. It is forfeited.
 
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Actually, the hereditary passing-down of knowledge has resulted an unbroken chain, so that the hindu verses are identical to the originals, including the Rigveda.

Most of the manuscripts of Rigveda are quite recent, the oldest being from the 15th century.
 
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Why don't you convince the thousands of historians about this?

There has been an "India" since millenia.



I "pounced" on him for his logic, which you have not addressed.



Who's poaching? Your history is as much our's as our's is your's.

But the term/idea "Pakistan" is very recent as compared to the term/idea India.

How can you label something "Pakistani" when "Pakistan" was not ven a thought back then?
The only reason I'm labeling it Pakistani because things tend to get labelled Indian otherwise.

I got no beef in them being labelled Sub-continent. I do agree, that histories are intertwined by a considerable degree, but IF a distinction is to be made, this side belongs to us and that side to you. :)
 
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By that argument, India didn't exist before 1947 either.

The Indus valley civillization predominantly grew distinctively from the others in India.

You can't just say that Pakistanis started off in 1947. The struggle for Pakistan started in the 1930s, the Muslim league was formed in 1906, Tipu Sultan dies in battle, Bahadur Shah Zafar was deposed/exhiled, the british arrived, Bulley Shah, Waris Shah, Shah Hussein, the Mughal Era, The Lodhi era, the arrival of Mohammad Bin Qasim... The civillization of mohenjedaro, Taxilla, the Kashmiri Jesus, Alexander the Great, Buddhism, Hinduism, cave men...

You'll take all of this in your own account?

Don't steal from our history, go get your own. Or at least be ethical and give proper citations ;). If anything the geographical area of present day India owes some of its history to Pakistan, not the other way round.

You guys have your own little chronology.

lmao bro you just nailed it... thanks!
 
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The only reason I'm labeling it Pakistani because things tend to get labelled Indian otherwise.

I got no beef in them being labelled Sub-continent. I do agree, that histories are intertwined by a considerable degree, but IF a distinction is to be made, this side belongs to us and that side to you. :)

Why has it been labelled Indian, and that too for millenia?
 
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Why has it been labelled Indian, and that too for millenia?
Westerners ignorance.

They mistook West Indies as India as well.

Westerners even call all subcontinent food as Indian food. I would give you idly, vada pav, masala dose, sambarr, but Biryani, Nihari, Haleem is ours.

Kite flying is virtually non-existant in India, yet its called Indian. It doesn't matter that come basant season, millions of kites take it to the skies of Lahore.

Westerners have their own fair share of opinionated, idiots. A westerners stamp is all you got.
 
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Westerners ignorance.

They mistook West Indies as India as well.

Westerners even call all subcontinent food as Indian food. I would give you idly, vada pav, masala dose, sambarr, but Biryani, Nihari, Haleem is ours.

Kite flying is virtually non-existant in India, yet its called Indian. It doesn't matter that come basant season, millions of kites take it to the skies of Lahore.

Westerners have their own fair share of opinionated, idiots. A westerners stamp is all you got.

Vada Pav is a snack. It has more to do with the Brits than anything Indian.
Masala dosa is South Indian dude. Biryani is north Indian. I don't see how the "Pakistan only" connection comes into play. Heard of Hyderabadi Biryani?

Kite flying is ubiquitous in India also, especially during Basant Panchami (not Basant as known in Pakistan) and Makar Sankranti, as well as Republic/Independence day. Even Rakshabandhan is considered kite-season.

Who gave you the idea that kite flying is non-existent in India?
 
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Westerners ignorance.

They mistook West Indies as India as well.

Westerners even call all subcontinent food as Indian food. I would give you idly, vada pav, masala dose, sambarr, but Biryani, Nihari, Haleem is ours.

Kite flying is virtually non-existant in India, yet its called Indian. It doesn't matter that come basant season, millions of kites take it to the skies of Lahore.

Westerners have their own fair share of opinionated, idiots. A westerners stamp is all you got.

So all Westeners are idiots? You ought to be kidding me. The Greeks and the Romans had the best historians.

There was no "Pakistan" then; there was an "India."

The western-bound European sailors were looking for "India" and not "Pakistan."

Biryani is abundant in India, and so is kite-flying. I do not know about Nihari and Haleem.

Westener's stamp: a pathetic way to put it; but this is what you are seeking for as well.
 
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What a load of nonsense. Even if Brahaminical knowledge passed from father to son (which is way too idealistic in a corruption ridden society under centuries of warfare and poverty and invasions), one can easily envisage some ancient Indian reading the Rig Veda calling himself a priest, and then passing the book on to his sons. This would not even need the same lineage as the original authors.

I'm amazed! Aren't you the resident historian?

There was no book or written version of the Rigveda till very late. It was orally composed, and orally handed down by memorization .

The current version of the Rigveda is what Brahmins passed down from father to son. And they didn't mess up along the way either, as testified by the bestest of historians.

There are a few manuscripts available, but all of them are recent. The oldest one is from the 15th century, if I'm not wrong.

"Corruption ridden society with warfare and poverty" :lol: No love lost for our evil immoral hindus I see.
 
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May I ask...where was the Indus Valley Civilization MOSTLY concentrated? Yes, there were parts in modern day India....but most of it was in modern day Pakistan. I dont think there can be any argument about that....even by those who say that there is still on-going discussion about the IVC.

There is evidence that people in modern day Balochistan (bordering Sindh) were practicing relatively advanced dentistry even 9000 years ago, i.e. root canals.

If these texts were written by the IVC over a long period of time....the chances are that the majority of that was done in modern day Pakistan, although...yes...some may have been in modern day India too since they did host a much smaller part of the IVC.
 
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May I ask...where was the Indus Valley Civilization MOSTLY concentrated? Yes, there were parts in modern day India....but most of it was in modern day Pakistan. I dont think there can be any argument about that....even by those who say that there is still on-going discussion about the IVC.

There is evidence that people in modern day Balochistan (bordering Sindh) were practicing relatively advanced dentistry even 9000 years ago, i.e. root canals.

If these texts were written by the IVC over a long period of time....the chances are that the majority of that was done in modern day Pakistan, although...yes...some may have been in modern day India too since they did host a much smaller part of the IVC.

Zyxius, I suggest you brush up on your history. There is no surviving text from the IVC. Infact the IVC probably didn't have a script.....just pictorial symbols...something like what the Chinese have today.
 
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Zyxius, I suggest you brush up on your history. There is no surviving text from the IVC. Infact the IVC probably didn't have a script.....just pictorial symbols...something like what the Chinese have today.

I mis-phrased...but you are arguing semantics and avoiding the issue. If the ORAL TRADITION (of the Rigveda) was developed by the IVC, then it likely took place mostly within modern day Pakistan.

And secondly, the IVC did have text, we just have not been able to decipher it yet...and all you really had to do is take 1 second to type it into Google to reconfirm.

Ancient Scripts: Indus Script

Writing
 
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