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The number zero was invented in Ancient Pakistan

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There whole argument corresponds to cultural theft, india as a state is a total artificial construct, made by the British empire, so that they could rule the country, I say - what does a Punjabi have in common with a Tamil, non what so ever.

Winston had a point, that is for indians to ponder, that is there country and their culture, and we have us and ours. :pakistan:

What does a Punjabi has anything common with Baluch and Pashtun. Stop making the silly argument again and again if you don't want me to question the ideology of Pakistan and the futility of the same in post-Bangladesh era.
 
What is up with this "Indus Valley is distinct" "It's our heritage" line ? Surely a book by a Pakistani politician doesn't count

See I can go on robot mode too ;) :


The people of the Indus valley migrated to the Gangetic Plains due to a shift in the monsoons.
Indus Valley Culture (Harappa)
c.3300 - c.1700 BC

.........

c.1800 BC


In this century the cities slip into terminal decline. No one cause seems responsible, but a combination of climate change, over-cultivation, and changes in the course of the Indus may contribute. The weakening of the monsoon is probably the most important single cause. Scribes in Sumer record that rich shipments suddenly cease at around 1800 BC.


c.1700 BC


The Indus culture dies out. Its people move east into Rajasthan and the Ganges watershed. Others head south to Gujarat, where the sea port at Lothal continues to flourish for a time before being abandoned too. Its inhabitants merge with the Stone Age tribes of the Deccan Plateau in central India and others in southern India. Squatters take over the abandoned citadels, living in slum dwellings, and village life continues in the countryside. The urban heritage is passed on to the east and engenders the emergence of cities in the Ganges valley and northern India, and the civilisation's reverence for animals is also passed on.
Kingdoms of South Asia - Indus Valley Culture
 
indus-civilization-map.jpg


This is the IVC map. It tells me, the civilization was based on the arable land of Punjab, Gujrat and Sindh. It had whatsoever no connection with Iranian or Dardic tribes.
 
Gandhāra (Sanskrit and Hindi: गन्धार, Pashto: ګندهارا, Urdu: گندھارا, Gandḥārā; also known as ویهیند Waihind in Persian)[1] is the name of an ancient kingdom (Mahajanapada), located in northern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan. Gandhara was located mainly in the vale of Peshawar, the Potohar plateau (see Taxila) and on the Kabul River. Its main cities were Purushapura (modern Peshawar), literally meaning City of Man[2] and Takshashila (modern Taxila).[3]

No connection what so ever with india.
 
Pakistanis have always lived in the Indus Valley. If you are going to propose a convenient mass migration theory the burden of proof lies on you. You can start by explaining why India was lying empty only 5000 years ago and who repopulated the entire Indus Valley once again.

The culture argument is even more ridiculous. Where do you think the Sindhi, Punjabi, Pashtun cultures, languages, value systems came from? Indian ethnic groups have their own cultures and languages and only Indian Punjab and occupied Kashmir can be said to belong to the Indus Valley.

Your Hippocratsy reflects from the point you that you have included whole of pakistan but have left the Baluch out of It. why this discrimination??:devil::devil:

And the most important point that you are being ignorant about the fact that the Indus civilization shares the area and boundary of Gujarat and Rajasthan in India.
 
ok relax guys....I have invented 11.... I am a Pakistani :yahoo:

Thats how 11 should be read from today :yahoo:

95013238.jpg
 
Your Hippocratsy reflects from the point you that you have included whole of pakistan but have left the Baluch out of It. why this discrimination??:devil::devil:

And the most important point that you are being ignorant about the fact that the Indus civilization shares the area and boundary of Gujarat and Rajasthan in India.

The most important and main sites are based on the Indus, other settlements are just copies are influenced by the IVC :pakistan:
 
“India is as much a nation as the Equator” – Winston Chuchill"

This is the fact of india as a nation and as a race, we have our civilisation, based upon the Indus Valley and you have bharat based upon the ganges :)
 
That's the racial way of viewing the history. History is not written based on people race, but their deeds.
Care to explain what is "racial" about the countless of languages and cultures that exist in the subcontinent? Did you know that the British had to conquer 600 different territories in South Asia? Would you say those territories were somehow united into an unspoken India? If this was the case just 60 years ago, on what basis can you claim that the subcontinent was united 1000s of years ago?
Also please do explain how proto-Dravidian language of IVC and Classical Sanskrit of Gandhara has anything to do with Pashto and Kashmiri?

IVC was not Dravidian. The language has never been deciphered, so I dont know how you can make that assumption. Likewise the origin of Pasho is not clear. However this does not prove any mass migration theory.
 
Pakicetids or Pakicetidae are a carnivorous mammal family of the suborder Archaeoceti which lived during the Early Eocene to Middle Eocene (55.8 mya—40.4 mya) in Pakistan and existed for approximately 15.4 million years.[1]

Ancient Pakistan is an accepted truth :)
 
Pakicetids or Pakicetidae are a carnivorous mammal family of the suborder Archaeoceti which lived during the Early Eocene to Middle Eocene (55.8 mya—40.4 mya) in Pakistan and existed for approximately 15.4 million years.[1]

Ancient Pakistan is an accepted truth :)
did you derive the name from them ??? :lol:
 
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